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Sergio [31]
3 years ago
14

The sum of the measures of angle Pand angle S is 140°.

Mathematics
2 answers:
katrin2010 [14]3 years ago
8 0
Value of x is B equals 6
Paraphin [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:6

Step-by-step explanation:i’ve done this answer before

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I forgot to add the pic to my last question. Thank you.
docker41 [41]
V= 7x12×?
V=84x?
252÷84=3
4 0
3 years ago
It's a little blurry sorry please help
Ghella [55]

<u>Answer:</u>

It's X=2

<u>Working out:</u>

<u>(left one):</u>

2(x+3)=10

2x+6=10

2x=10-6

2x=4

x=2

Working out:

(right one):

2(x+3) must be all divided by 2 so it will be x+3 and same for 10, it will be 5 so...

x+3=5

x=5-3

x=2

Hope it helps ^---^

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If y = 2x 3, find the value of y when x=-3
Ivenika [448]
Y = 2x³,    when x = -3

<span>y = 2*(-3)³
</span>
<span>y = 2*-27
</span>
y = -54
6 0
3 years ago
Help me solve -2+5n=4n+2
iris [78.8K]
Sorry for the messy handwriting
7 0
3 years ago
There are 5 pens in a container on your desk. Among them, 3 will write well but 2 have defective ink cartridges. You will select
Norma-Jean [14]

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Total Number of pens = 5

Number of defective pens = 2

Number of non-defective pens = 3

A.) number of defective pens selected :

X : {0, 1, 2}

It is possible that no defective pen will be selected ; 1 defective will be chosen or both pens are defective.

2.)

Defective as Success (since selecting a defective pen is the point of interest.

3.)

Since selection is done without replacement

Probability of success per selection is different for each selection ;

Number of defective = 2

Number of observations = 5

P(success on first selection) = 2/5

P(success on second selection) = 1/4

Hence, X is not well approximated by a binomial random variable.

4.) if selection is done with replacement ; then then the probability of success per selection will be the Same for each selection made. Hence, X will be well approximated by a binomial Random variable.

5.) If sampling is done without replacement, then the the hypergeometric function will be a more effective approximation.

7 0
3 years ago
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