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3 years ago

Please help I’m stupid

Mathematics

2 answers:

alexandr402 [8]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

the answer is -50

Step-by-step explanation:

sammy [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

it would be 70

Step-by-step explanation:

you are not stupid

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It’s on the picture .

Marrrta [24]

Answer:

slope 2

yint 1

equation y=2x+1

3 0

3 years ago

Mrs fields sold pens at 55 cents each and markers at $2 each. She sold 40 pens and markers altogether and collected $59.70

Andreyy89

B) form an equation in x connecting the cost of pens and markers there were

5 0

3 years ago

What’s the equation of 4,-1,-2,-5

iren [92.7K]

Answer:

y=(4-1-2-5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Line equation

y=0.6666666666666666x−3.666666666666667

Slope

0.67

Intercept

-3.67

Equation for x

x=−6t+4

Equation for y

y=−4t−1

Direction vector

-6

-4

3 0

4 years ago

On average, mary has noticed that 18 trains pass by her house daily (24 hours) on the nearby train tracks. what is the probabili

Ludmilka [50]

The probability that exactly 1 train will pass Mary's house is 0.00889.

According to the given question.

On average, 18 trains pass by Mary's house daily i.e. in 24 hours.

As, we know that "Probability can be defined as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes of an event".

Therefore,

The probability that exactly one train will pass Mary's house in a 3 hour period

= $\frac{^{18C_{1} } }{^{24} C_{3} }$

$= \frac{\frac{18!}{1!\times17!} }{\frac{24!}{3!\times 21!} }$

$= \frac{18}{\frac{24\times23\times22}{3\times2\times1} }$

$=\frac{18}{8\times23\times\ 11}$

= 18/2024

= 0.00889

Hence, the probability that exactly 1 train will pass Mary's house is 0.00889.

Find out more information about probability here:

brainly.com/question/13098829

#SPJ4

7 0

2 years ago

A large car insurance company selected samples of single and married male policyholders and recorded the number who made an insu

nalin [4]

Answer:

The null hypothesis is rejected.

There is enough evidence to support the claim that rates are higher for single male policyholders verses married male policyholders (P-value = 0.004).

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a hypothesis test for the difference between proportions.

The claim is that rates are higher for single male policyholders verses married male policyholders.

Then, the null and alternative hypothesis are:

$H_0: \pi_1-\pi_2=0\\\\H_a:\pi_1-\pi_2> 0$

The significance level is 0.05.

The sample 1 (single group), of size n1=450 has a proportion of p1=0.1489.

$p_1=X_1/n_1=67/450=0.1489$

The sample 2 (married group), of size n2=925 has a proportion of p2=0.1005.

$p_2=X_2/n_2=93/925=0.1005$

The difference between proportions is (p1-p2)=0.0483.

$p_d=p_1-p_2=0.1489-0.1005=0.0483$

The pooled proportion, needed to calculate the standard error, is:

$p=\dfrac{X_1+X_2}{n_1+n_2}=\dfrac{67.005+93}{450+925}=\dfrac{160}{1375}=0.1164$

The estimated standard error of the difference between means is computed using the formula:

$s_{p1-p2}=\sqrt{\dfrac{p(1-p)}{n_1}+\dfrac{p(1-p)}{n_2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{0.1164*0.8836}{450}+\dfrac{0.1164*0.8836}{925}}\\\\\\s_{p1-p2}=\sqrt{0.0002+0.0001}=\sqrt{0.0003}=0.0184$

Then, we can calculate the z-statistic as:

$z=\dfrac{p_d-(\pi_1-\pi_2)}{s_{p1-p2}}=\dfrac{0.0483-0}{0.0184}=\dfrac{0.0483}{0.0184}=2.62$

This test is a right-tailed test, so the P-value for this test is calculated as (using a z-table):

$P-value=P(z>2.62)=0.004$

As the P-value (0.004) is smaller than the significance level (0.05), the effect is significant.

The null hypothesis is rejected.

There is enough evidence to support the claim that rates are higher for single male policyholders verses married male policyholders.

6 0

3 years ago