Answer:
The map of the current process is found in the attached
The minimum cycle time is 1 min 40 seconds
The longest cycle time is 2 min 35 seconds
The new minimum cycle is 1 min 15 seconds
The new longest cycle time is 2 mins
The potential problem that could surface from splitting the process is that once the customer has finished paying the customer has to wait for about 30 to 55 seconds before the second attendant finishes with packaging,hence ,a queue would likely be formed awaiting the second attendant.
The problem could be solved by ensuring the taking money and packaging takes the same time.
Explanation:
Minimum cycle time=20+55+25=100 seconds=1 minute 40 seconds
The longest cycle time=30+90+35=155 seconds=2 min 35 seconds
The new minimum cycle time=20+55=75 seconds=1 min 15 seconds
Taking customer's money also happened in the first 35 seconds of the 55 seconds above.
The new longest cycle time=30+90=120 seconds=2 mins
Answer:
a.
Explanation:
Based on all the answers that were provided the statement that is correct is that the bid price in a hostile takeover is generally above the price before the takeover attempt is announced, because otherwise there would be no incentive for the stockholders to sell to the hostile bidder and the takeover attempt would probably fail. Which pretty much explains itself, except for that a hostile takeover is when a person or another business tries to purchase a business by going directly to the shareholders themselves.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Depends on what you are trying to fix
Answer:
The answer is: Gail's § 179 deduction for 2019 is $145,000
Explanation:
§ 179 of the IRS Code, allows taxpayer to either:
- deduct the cost of certain types of property from gross income taxes as an expense
- allow the cost of the property to be capitalized and depreciated.
If Gail had a § 179 deduction carryover of $30,000 and then she acquired an asset for $115,000, her total § 179 deduction for 2019 is $30,000 + $115,000 = $145,000
Answer:
The total paid-in capital declines by $17 million
Explanation:
The necessary entries to record the repurchase of shares are as follows:
Dr Common stock $1*2,000,000 $2,000,000
Dr Paid-in capital in excess of par
1120*140*2000,0000 $ 16,000,000
Cr Cash $7*2000,000 $14,000,000
Cr Share repurchase(balancing figure) $4,000,000
Invariably, the paid-in capital declines by the difference the total of common stock and paid-in capital in excess of par ($2m+$16m) and the share repurchase,hence the it declines by $17 million
