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Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]
3 years ago
7

What is the equation of a line parallel to y=4/5x+2 that passes through 1,2​

Mathematics
1 answer:
givi [52]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

4/5x+6/5

Step-by-step explanation:

not sure but i have my ways with equations lol

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In ABC, you know that a = 2, b = 3 and m A = 30°. Which option below lists the number of triangles and gives the correct explana
xz_007 [3.2K]
I think there isn't one triangle at all, there are two of it. So I suggest to choose <span>C. There are two triangles because b sin A < a < b - as it's exactly correct explanation that excepts other options. </span>
5 0
3 years ago
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A truck is 300 miles east of a car and is traveling west at the constant speed of 30 miles/hr meanwhile the car is going north a
Lerok [7]

Answer:

d(t)=\sqrt{(300+30t)^2+(60t)^2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Let t represents the time in hours,

We know that,

Speed =\frac{Distance}{Time}

\implies Distance = Speed\times time

Since, the speed of truck = 30 miles per hour,

So, the distance covered by the truck in t hours = 30t miles,

Similarly,

Speed of car = 60 miles per hour,

So, the distance covered by car in t hours = 60t miles,

∵ Truck is 300 miles east of the car initially,

Thus, the distance of the truck from the starting point = 30t + 300,

While the distance of the car from the starting point = 60 t,

Now, these two vehicles are going in the directions which are at right angled ( car is going north and truck is going west )

Using the Pythagoras theorem,

Distance between them after t hours,

d(t)=\sqrt{(300+30t)^2+(60t)^2}

Which is the required function.

3 0
3 years ago
Asking easy questions so people can get points (answer must be right)<br><br> what is 0.45 x 10
nexus9112 [7]

Answer:

Thank youuu It's 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Please help!! will mark branliest
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

a. After the first bounce, the ball will be at 85% of 8 ft. After 2 bounces, it'll be at 85% of 85% of 8 feet. After 3 bounces, it'll be at (85% of) (85% of) (85% of 8 feet).  You can see where this is going. After n bounces the ball will be at

h(n) = (85\%)^n 6ft = (\frac{17}{20})^n(6ft\times 12\frac{in}{ft}) = (\frac{17}{20})^n\times72'

b. After 8 bounces we can apply the previous formula with n = 8 to get

h(8)=(\frac{17}{20})^8\times 72' = 19.62'

c. The solution to this point requires using exponential and logarithm equations; a more basic way would be trial and error using the previous h(n)increasing the value of n until we find a good value. I recommend using a spreadsheet for that; the condition will lead to the following inequality:

1>(\frac{17}{20})^n\times 72 Let's first isolate the fraction by dividing by 72.

(\frac{17}{20})^n  Now, to get numbers we can plug in a calculator, let's take the natural logarithm of both sides:

ln ((\frac{17}{20})^n) < ln \frac 1{72} \rightarrow n\times ln (\frac{17}{20}) < -ln72. Now the two quantities are known - or easy to get with any calculator, replacing them and solving for n we get:

-(0.16)n < - 4.27 \rightarrow n>26.31 Now, since n is an integer - you can't have a fraction of a bounce after all, you pick the integer right after that, or n>27.

7 0
3 years ago
Maths in science
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

answer is that i dont know

6 0
3 years ago
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