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e-lub [12.9K]
3 years ago
8

A 100-ampere resistor bank is connected to a controller with conductor insulation rated 75°C. The resistors are not used in conj

unction with the starting current of a motor.
Engineering
1 answer:
Naily [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

answer

Explanation:

You might be interested in
The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: 푖푖=40푚푚푚푚푡푡≤0푖푖=푚푚1푒푒−10,000푡푡+푚푚2푒푒−40,000푡푡푚푚푡푡≥0The voltage across the induct
Anni [7]

Answer:

a) The expression for electrical current: i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

The expression for voltage: v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) For t<=0 the inductor is storing energy and for t > 0 the inductor is delivering energy.

Explanation:

The question text is corrupted. I found the complete question on the web and it goes as follow:

The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: i = 40 mA at t<=0 and i = A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t) A at t>0. The voltage across the inductor (passive sign convention) is -68 V at t = 0.

a. Find the numerical expressions for i and v for t>0.

b. Specify the time intervals when the inductor is storing energy and is delivering energy.

A inductor stores energy in the form of a magnetic field, it behaves in a way that oposes sudden changes in the electric current that flows through it, therefore at moment just after t = 0, that for convenience we'll call t = 0+, the current should be the same as t=0, so:

i = A1*e^(-10,000*(0)) + A2*e^(-40,000*(0))

40*10^(-3) = A1*e^(-10,000*0) + A2*e^(-40,000*0)

40*10^(-3) = (A1)*1 + (A2)*1

40*10^(-3) = A1 + A2

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

Since we have two variables (A1 and A2) we need another equation to be able to solve for both. For that reason we will use the voltage expression for a inductor, that is:

V = L*di/dt

We have the voltage drop across the inductor at t=0 and we know that the current at t=0 and the following moments after that should be equal, so we can use the current equation for t > 0 to find the derivative on that point, so:

di/dt = d(A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t))/dt

di/dt = [d(-10,000*t)/dt]*A1*e^(-10,000*t) + [d(-40,000*t)/dt]*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

di/dt = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

By applying t = 0 to this expression we have:

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*0) - 40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*0)

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^0 - 40,000*A2*e^0

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1- 40,000*A2

We can now use the voltage equation for the inductor at t=0, that is:

v = L di/dt (at t=0)

68 = [20*10^(-3)]*(-10,000*A1 - 40,000*A2)

68 = -400*A1 -800*A2

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

We now have a system with two equations and two variable, therefore we can solve it for both:

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

Using the first equation we have:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - A2

We can apply this to the second equation to solve for A2:

-400*[40*10^(-3) - A2] - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 + 400*A2 - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 -400*A2 = 68

-400*A2 = 68 + 1.6

A2 = 69.6/400 = 0.174

We use this value of A2 to calculate A1:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - 0.174 = -0.134

Applying these values on the expression we have the equations for both the current and tension on the inductor:

i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[-10,000*(-0.134)*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*(0.174)*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[1340*e^(-10,000*t) - 6960*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) The question states that the current for the inductor at t > 0 is a exponential powered by negative numbers it is expected that its current will reach 0 at t = infinity. So, from t =0 to t = infinity the inductor is delivering energy. Since at time t = 0 the inductor already has a current flow of 40 mA and a voltage, we can assume it already had energy stored, therefore for t<0 it is storing energy.

8 0
3 years ago
A tank with some water in it begins to drain. The function v ( t ) = 46 − 3.5 t determines the volume of the water in the tank (
olchik [2.2K]

Answer with Explanation:

Part a)

The volume of water in the tank as a function of time is plotted in the below attached figure.

The vertical intercept of the graph is 46.

Part b)

The vertical intercept represents the volume of water that is initially present in the tank before draining begins.

Part c)

To find the time required to completely drain the tank we calculate the volume of the water in the tank to zero.

0=46-3.5t\\\\3.5=46\\\\\therefore t=\frac{46}{3.5}=13.143minutes

Part d)

The horizontal intercept represents the time it takes to empty the tank which as calculated above is 13.143 minutes.

7 0
3 years ago
A person walks into a refrigerated warehouse with head uncovered. Model the head as a 25- cm diameter sphere at 35°C with a surf
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

Hello some parts of your question is missing below is the missing part

Convection coefficient = 11 w/m^2. °c

answer : 44.83 watts

Explanation:

Given data :

surface emissivity ( ε )= 0.95

head ( sphere) diameter( D )  = 0.25 m

Temperature of sphere( T )  = 35° C

Temperature of surrounding ( T∞ )  = 25°C

Temperature of surrounding surface ( Ts ) = 15°C

б  = ( 5.67 * 10^-8 )

Determine the total rate of heat loss

First we calculate the surface area of the sphere

As = \pi D^{2}  

= \pi * 0.25^2 =  0.2 m^2

next we calculate heat loss due to radiation

Qrad = ε * б * As( T^{4} - T^{4} _{s} )  ---- ( 1 )

where ;

ε = 0.95

б = ( 5.67 * 10^-8 )

As = 0.2 m^2

T = 35 + 273 = 308 k

Ts = 15 + 273 = 288 k

input values into equation 1

Qrad = 0.95 * ( 5.67 * 10^-8 ) * 0.2 ( (308)^4 - ( 288)^4 )

         = 22.83  watts

Qrad ( heat loss due to radiation ) = 22.83 watts

calculate the heat loss due to convection

Qconv = h* As ( ΔT )

           = 11*0.2 ( 35 -25 )  = 22 watts

Hence total rate of heat loss

=  22 + 22.83

= 44.83 watts

5 0
3 years ago
A container filled with a sample of an ideal gas at the pressure of 150 Kpa. The gas is compressed isothermally to one-third of
lyudmila [28]

Answer: c) 450 kPa

Explanation:

Boyle's Law: This law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume of the gas at constant temperature and number of moles.

P\propto \frac{1}{V}     (At constant temperature and number of moles)

P_1V_1=P_2V_2  

where,

P_1 = initial pressure of gas  = 150 kPa

P_2 = final pressure of gas  = ?

V_1 = initial volume of gas   = v L

V_2 = final volume of gas  = \frac{v}{3}L

150\times v=P_2\times \frac{v}{3}  

P_2=450kPa

Therefore, the new pressure of the gas will be 450 kPa.

7 0
3 years ago
A structural component in the form of a wide plate is to be fabricated from a steel alloy that has a plane-strain fracture tough
jeyben [28]

Complete question:

A structural component in the form of a wide plate is to be fabricated from a steel alloy that has a plane strain fracture toughness of 98.9 MPa root m (90 ksi root in.) and a yield strength of 860 MPa (125,000 psi). The flaw size resolution limit of the flaw detection apparatus is 3.0 mm (0.12 in.). If the design stress is one-half of the yield strength and the value of Y is 1.0, determine whether or not a critical flaw for this plate is subject to detection.

Answer:

Since the flaw 17mm is greater than 3 mm the critical flaw for this plate is subject to detection

so that critical flow is subject to detection  

Explanation:

We are given:

Plane strain fracture toughness K = 98.9 MPa \sqrt{m}

Yield strength Y = 860 MPa

Flaw detection apparatus = 3.0mm (12in)

y = 1.0

Let's use the expression:

oc = \frac{K}{Y \sqrt{pi * a}}

We already know

K= design

a = length of surface creak

Since we are to find the length of surface creak, we will make "a" subject of the formula in the expression above.

Therefore

a= \frac{1}{pi} * [\frac{k}{y*a}]^2

Substituting figures in the expression above, we have:

= \frac{1}{pi} * [\frac{98.9 MPa \sqrt{m}} {10 * \frac{860MPa}{2}}]^2

= 0.0168 m

= 17mm

Therefore, since the flaw 17mm > 3 mm the critical flow is subject to detection  

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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