All categories

3 years ago

How is counting by 100 and 1,000 like counting by 1 and 10?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Ivanshal [37]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

It just take more time.

Step-by-step explanation:

The more 0's the more you count

romanna [79]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

it just takes longer

Step-by-step explanation:

you count by 1 from 100 until 1000

You might be interested in

Find the value of x. If necessary, round to the nearest tenth.

Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

the answer is 7 i believe

4 0

3 years ago

Only do # 23 and explain please

Tresset [83]

Answer:

a) 12x + 20y = 300

b) No

Step-by-step explanation:

You can define your variables however you like. Let x = number of caps and y = number of shirts.

Using the costs given the equation would be

12x + 20y = 300.

For part b the answer is no, only points with positive x and y values would be solutions, since you cannot have a negative number of caps or shirts.

4 0

3 years ago

Suppose x has a normal distribution with mean μ = 45 and standard deviation σ = 9. describe the distribution of x values for sam

Fofino [41]

The standard deviation of a particular sample is equal to the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size. That is, $\sigma_x=\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt n}$
The mean of a particular sample is equal to the mean of the set the sample was taken from. That is,
$\mu_x=\mu$
$\text{In your case, }\sigma_x=\frac{9}{\sqrt4}=\frac92\text{ and }\mu_x=45.$

4 0

3 years ago

Tap A takes 6 minutes to fill a tank and tap b takes 9 minutes to fill the same tank. Pipe C can empty the tank in 15 minutes. H

jekas [21]

Answer: approximately 4.7368 minutes

This decimal value is the result of computing 90/19

=====================================================

Explanation:

Let's find the LCM of 6, 9 and 15. First, list out the prime factorization of each value.

6 = 2*3
9 = 3*3
15 = 3*5

The unique prime factors are 2, 3, and 5. We have 2 show up at most once, 3 show up at most twice, and 5 show up at most once. The LCM is 2^1*3^2*5^1 = 2*9*5 = 18*5 = 90.

We'll use this LCM value to set up an example below.

---------------

Consider the tank to be 90 gallons. If we only use tap A, keep tap B closed, and don't open pipe C, then tap A fills the tank at a rate of 90/6 = 15 gallons per minute since it needs 6 minutes to completely fill the tank.

If we have tap B do all the work (keep tap A and pipe C closed), then the rate is 90/9 = 10 gallons per minute for this tap.

Keeping pipe C closed, the two taps A and B work together to have a combined rate of 15+10 = 25 gallons per minute.

Now we consider pipe C being opened. This drains the tank and can do so in 15 minutes (assume the taps A and B aren't open). If we're dealing with a full 90 gallon tank, then its rate is 90/15 = 6 gallons per minute.

The net rate is 25-6 = 19 gallons per minute. We can think of it as a tug of war where the taps A and B ultimately win out despite the fact that pipe C is draining the water. The two taps fill the tank faster than the pipe can drain the tank.

In other words, the tank ultimately gets filled up rather than drained out over the long run. That net speed is at 19 gallons per minute.

The amount of time needed is approximately 90/19 = 4.7368 minutes.

Side note: you can start with any size tank. It doesn't have to be 90 gallons. I picked on this value because it works cleanly with the original given numbers 6, 9 and 15.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The chance of rain on a randomly selected day in Western Oregon between June 21st and September 21st is 30% each day. What is th

polet [3.4K]

Answer:

0.47 is the probability it rains at least 2 out of any randomly selected 5 days during the given time of year

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information:

We treat training as a success.

P(Rain) = 30% = 0.30

Then the chances of rain on each day follows a binomial distribution, where

$P(X=x) = \binom{n}{x}.p^x.(1-p)^{n-x}$

where n is the total number of observations, x is the number of success, p is the probability of success.

Now, we are given n = 5

We have to evaluate:

$P(x \geq 2) =1- P(x = 0) + P(x = 1) \\=1- \binom{5}{0}(0.3)^0(1-0.3)^5 - \binom{5}{1}(0.3)^1(1-0.3)^4\\=1- 0.16807- 0.36015\\= 0.47178 \approx 0.47$

0.47 is the probability it rains at least 2 out of any randomly selected 5 days during the given time of year

6 0

4 years ago