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2 years ago

Solve for x. there’s a 76 and x.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ghella [55]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

104

Step-by-step explanation:

The angle is supplementary, so the total angle measure (of 79 and x) is 180. Just subtract the value we have (76) from the total value (180), and you get x.

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As reported in Trends in Television, the proportion of US households who have at least one VCR is 0.535. If 14 households are se

motikmotik

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.

For each household, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it has at least one VCR, or it does not. The probability of a household having at least one VCR is independent of any other household, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.
n is the number of trials.
p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

14 households, hence $n = 14$ .
0.535 probability of having at least one VCR, hence $p = 0.535$ .

The probability of <u>at least 6 and no more than 8</u> is:

$P(6 \leq X \leq 8) = P(X = 6) + P(X = 7) + P(X = 8)$

In which:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 6) = C_{14,6}.(0.535)^{6}.(0.465)^{8} = 0.1539$

$P(X = 7) = C_{14,7}.(0.535)^{7}.(0.465)^{7} = 0.2024$

$P(X = 8) = C_{14,8}.(0.535)^{8}.(0.465)^{6} = 0.2038$

Then:

$P(6 \leq X \leq 8) = P(X = 6) + P(X = 7) + P(X = 8) = 0.1539 + 0.2024 + 0.2038 = 0.5601$

0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377

8 0

2 years ago

Magda is playing a game with colored cards. Each card has a number on it. Magda chooses one card at random. All possible outcome

9966 [12]

Answer: It is 1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

There are a total of 12 cards. If you look at the table, there is only one yellow card that is even. So it is 1/12.

5 0

2 years ago

✎﹏Question~

Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

Sol: In this question, firstly we have to make the first bracket as a complete square of the second bracket. This we can by adding 2.x.1/x which is equivalent to 2. Then the equation becomes:

6(x2 + 1/x2 +2) – 5(x + 1/x) = 50 { 38 + 6*2)

⇒ 6(x2 + 1/x2 +2) – 5(x + 1/x) – 50 = 0

Now put x + 1/x = y

⇒ 6y2 -5y -50 = 0

⇒ (2y +5)(3y-10)= 0

⇒ y=-5/2 or 10/3

As x is positive therefore, x + 1/x =10/3

On solving further you will get as x=3 or 1/3

7 0

1 year ago

Can somebody please help me?

klasskru [66]

Answer:

TRUE!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! BRANLIST

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

585 divided by 5 is?

sertanlavr [38]

Use a calculator it’s 117

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers