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den301095 [7]
2 years ago
8

Find the slope of a line that goes through point A(8,-4) and C(2, -1)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Black_prince [1.1K]2 years ago
5 0
The answer for finding the slope is -1/2
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Please help. The numerator is an x
Sati [7]

Answer:

x = 30

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{x}{6} +1=6\\\\\mathrm{Subtract\:}1\mathrm{\:from\:both\:sides}\\\frac{x}{6}+1-1=6-1\\\\Simplify\\\frac{x}{6}=5\\\\\mathrm{Multiply\:both\:sides\:by\:}6\\\frac{6x}{6}=5\times\:6\\\\Simplify\\x=30

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3 years ago
The question is in the picture btw
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Answer:

The width of the andre is 5×5×5=15

Then surface area will be length ×width=15×10=50

4 0
2 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago
Wake up to reality
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

What do I answer?.......

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2 years ago
A right triangle has a vertex at point M and a height of 3 units. The base of the triangle is on MN and is 4 units long. Use the
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Answer:

I used the answer the other person gave, but it said it was wrong. Here was the answer I put in the second time.

Step-by-step explanation:


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