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swat32
2 years ago
12

In a command economy, Individuals fellow thir self-interest without government intervention True or False

Business
2 answers:
sladkih [1.3K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

A  command economy is also known as the planned economy. The government controls and owns all the factors of production. Usually, the government, through its agencies, prepares a central plan to manage the economy. The central plan details what will be produced, the quantities, and the prices.

The private sector is non-existent in a command economy. All productions and employment are by the government.

GarryVolchara [31]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

false

Explanation:

command economy is the same as a planned economy where the prices and incomes are decided and fixed by the central government

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_____ involve an initial public offering, private sale of stock, succession by a family member or a nonfamily member, merger wit
navik [9.2K]

Exit strategies involve an initial public offering, private sale of stock, succession by a family member or a nonfamily member, merger with another company, or liquidation of a company.

What is exit strategy?

When specified conditions either have been fulfilled or exceeded, an investor, trader, venture capitalist, or business owner would implement an exit strategy, which is a contingency plan, to liquidate their position in one or more financial assets or to sell tangible company assets.

Why exit strategy is important?

Creating a smooth transition for your management team and other stakeholders. Generating a potential income for retirement or disability. Enhancing the future worth of your business. Reducing or deferring the potential tax impact on your estate, spouse or family.

Learn more about exit strategy: brainly.com/question/9963253

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6 0
1 year ago
You are long 2 contracts of 1-yr call on MSFT with strike (K) of $220, and also long 2 contracts of 1-yr call on MSFT with strik
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is $320.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows:

MSFT price at expiry (S_T) = $250

MSFT with strike (K) Contract 1 = $220

MSFT with strike (K) Contract 2 = $120

So, we can calculate the payoff by using following formula:

Payoff = [(Stock price at expiry (ST) - Strike price of $220)] + [(Stock price at expiry (ST) - Strike price of $120)]

BY putting the value, we get

Payoff =  ($250 - $220) + ($250 - $120)

= $30 + $130

= $160

As there are 2 contracts, then

Total payoff = $160 × 2

= $320

7 0
2 years ago
Question 1 Multiple Choice Worth 10 points)
kipiarov [429]

Answer:

Federal Trade Commission

Explanation:

I just took the quiz and got it right.

3 0
2 years ago
Plush Corporation purchased 100 percent of Common Corporation’s common stock on January 1, 20X3, and paid $450,000. The fair val
Oxana [17]

Answer:

Please refer the detail answer in the memo below

Explanation:

Date: 24 January 20XX

Subject: Review of Impairment of Goodwill

From: External Auditors

To: Chief Accountant, Plush Corporation

Upon review of the investment made by your company in Common Corporation, we believe that there are possible indications of the impairment of the goodwill initially recognized in the books upon acquisition.

At the time of Acquisition:

Consideration = $450,000

Fair Value of Net Assets = $430,000

Goodwill = $450,000 - $430,000 = $20,000

The new guidance issued by FASB, requires only a one-step quantitative impairment test, whereby a goodwill impairment loss will be measured as the excess of a reporting unit’s carrying amount over its fair value.

However, if we follow the previous guidance of FASB, we have to test the impairment with the following three steps:

Step 1: We will compare the carrying amount of the net assets with the Fair value of Reporting Unit, and if the carrying amount exceeds the fair value, we will record the impairment.

Step 1: We will compute, implied value of goodwill by comparing the fair value of the reporting unit with the fair value of the identifiable net assets, if FV of net assets are higher, then there is no impairment, otherwise we will jump to Step 3.

Step 3: If the calculated implied value of the goodwill is lower than the actual goodwill at acquisition, than the difference is the impairment loss, however in case the implied value of the goodwill is higher than the actual goodwill at acquisition, no impairment shall be recorded.

Apparently, since the fair value of Common had increased to $485,000, there is no need to recognize the impairment loss on goodwill; however we believe that the estimated fair value of Common is less than the $430,000 and therefore impairment should be recorded.

7 0
2 years ago
If two people are invited to invest and become partners in a business, the business owners will then the risk.
worty [1.4K]
The answer you're looking for is "Share." Hope this helps!
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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