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Lerok [7]
3 years ago
14

A bottle of hand lotion is on sale for $2.25. If this price represents a 50% discount from the original price,what is the origin

al price to the nearest percent?
Mathematics
1 answer:
nalin [4]3 years ago
3 0

Step-by-step explanation:

50% is basically half. So if you double the price ($2.25) x 2 you will have your answer.

So the answer is $4.50..!

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A rectangular page is to contain 32 square inches of print. The margins at the top and bottom of the page are to be 2 inches wid
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3 years ago
Serenity Spa charges $59 for a one hour massage. They charge $0.95 per minute for each additional minute over an hour. If
Yanka [14]

Answer:

D. y = 0.8x + 79

Choices:

A.  

y = 79x + 0.8

B.  

y = -0.8x + 79

C.  

y = 79.8x

D.  

y = 0.8x + 79

5 0
3 years ago
Vince weighs 160 pounds, and his friend Nadir weighs 140 pounds. Nadir calculated that his weight on another planet would be abo
Ymorist [56]

Answer: 64 lbs

Step-by-step explanation:

I divided 56/140 and got 0.4. Then multiplied 0.4 by 160 and got 64. SOunds about right to me.

You can double check by multipling 0.4 by 140 and you get 56.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help and thank you
kondaur [170]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's see how well I can explain this. \frac{\pi}{6} is the same as a 30 degree angle which is in quadrant 1. If you picture the unit circle, right in the center of it is the origin. If you draw a straight line from 30 degrees and through the center (the origin), you will automatically "connect" with the reference angle of 30 (this is true for ALL angles on the unit circle). This puts us in quadrant 3. In quadrant 3, x is negative and so is y. So the terminal point of the reference angle for 30 degrees has the same exact values, but both of them are negative (again, because both x and y are negative in quadrant 3). I can't see your choices but the one you want looks like this:

(-\frac{\sqrt{3} }{2},-\frac{1}{2})

3 0
3 years ago
2 1⁄2 ÷ 1 3⁄6 please help me with the RIGHT answer.
ycow [4]

Answer:

1\frac{2}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to simplify:

2 \frac{1}{2}  \div 1 \frac{3}{6}

This is the same as:

2 \frac{1}{2}  \div 1 \frac{1}{2}

Now let us convert the mixed numbers to improper fractions.

\frac{5}{2}  \div  \frac{3}{2}

We multiply by the reciprocal of the second fraction to get:

\frac{5}{2}  \times  \frac{2}{3}

Cancel out the common factors to obtain:

\frac{5}{3}  = 1 \frac{2}{3}

5 0
3 years ago
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