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3 years ago

PLEASE HURRY<33 Graph the following piecewise function. f(x)={x^2+2 if -5

Mathematics

1 answer:

Lina20 [59]3 years ago

6 0

The graph for the first is line segment joining (x, y) = (−2,−4)and (2, 4), sans the end points. The second part is the line through (-2, -6) and (-3, -9), from (-2, -6), excepting (-2, -6). ..

Step-by-step explanation: you are using y for the piecewise function.

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A triangle is shown with its exterior angles. The interior angles of the triangle are angles 2, 3, 5. The exterior angle at angl

Nata [24]

Answer:

m∠1 + m∠2 = 180°

Step-by-step explanation:

An interior angle and its exterior angle are supplementary (they add up to 180°).

I would really appreciate it if you would mark me brainliest!

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5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Help ASAP please ...

cupoosta [38]

Answer:

Angle Q

Step-by-step explanation:

As I said on my previous posts, all you need to remember is CPCTC (corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent)

Q corresponds to B, and is thus congruent

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries

kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}
$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

$\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04$

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

$P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1$

We want $P(X \geq 1)$ . Then

$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)$

In which

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}
$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535
$

$P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465$

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

3 0

3 years ago

Whats the answer to that question?

gavmur [86]

Answer:

-0.9090... can be written as $\frac{10}{11}$ .

Explanation:

Any repeating decimal can be written as a fraction by dividing the section of the pattern to be repeated by 9's.

We can start by listing out

0.909090... = 9/10 + 0/100 + 9/1000 + 0/10000 + 9/100000 + 0/1000000 + ...

Now. we let this series be equal to x, that is

$x$ = 9/10 + 0/100 + 9/1000 + 0/10000 + 9/100000 + 0/1000000 + ...

Now, we'll multiply both sides by 100 .

$100x$ = 90 + 0 + 9/10 + 0/100 + 9/1000 + 0/10000 + ...

Then, subtract the 1st equation from the second like so:

$100x$ = 90 + 0 + 9/10 + 0/100 + 9/1000 + 0/10000 + 9/100000 + 0/1000000 + ...

$-x$ = - 9/10 - 0/100 - 9/1000 - 0/10000 - 9/100000 - 0/1000000 - ...

And we end up with this:

$99x=90$

Finally, we divide both sides by 99 in order to isolate x and get the fraction we're looking for.

$x=\frac{90}{99}$

Which can be reduced and simplified to

$x=\frac{10}{11}$

Hope this helps!

4 0

3 years ago

A rectangular tank measures 30 cm by 20 cm by 40 cm. How many milliliters of water are in the tank when it is full? How many lit

mario62 [17]

Answer:

24000 cm³ or 24 L

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of a tank is 30 cm by 20 cm by 40 cm.

We need to find the volume of water in the tank when it is full.

Volum = 30 cm × 20 cm × 40 cm

= 24000 cm³

1 cm³ = 1 ml

24000 cm³ = 24000 mL

Also, 1 cm³ = 0.001 ml

24000 cm³ = 24 L

Hence, this is the required solution.

4 0

3 years ago