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iris [78.8K]
3 years ago
9

Find a slope of each line (each block is one unit):

Mathematics
1 answer:
Darina [25.2K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The slope is -3

Step-by-step explanation:

We have two points

( -1,2) and (1,-4)

We can use the slope formula

m = ( y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = ( -4 -2)/ ( 1 - -1)

   = ( -4-2)/ (1+1)

   = -6/2

   = -3

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Seattle, wa and san francisco, ca lie on the same longitudinal line. san francisco is at 38° latitude and seattle is at 47° lati
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Step 1.

Calculate measure of angle α:

47^o-38^o=9^o

Step 2.

Calculate what fraction of the angle 360° ​​is the angle α:

\dfrac{9^o}{360^o}=\dfrac{1}{40}

Step 3.

Calculate the circumference of the Earth (circle):

C=2\pi r\to C=2\pi\cdot4000=8000\pi\ mi

Step 4.

The length of arc is equal 1/40 of the circumference:

\dfrac{1}{40}C=\dfrac{1}{40}\cdot8000\pi=200\pi\ mi

\pi\approx3.14\to\dfrac{1}{40}C\approx200\cdot3.14=628\ mi


<h3>Answer: A) 628 miles</h3>

8 0
3 years ago
Scale on map is Lin 86 mi if actual distance is 35 mi . Between two cities how far apart on the map are they
Mrac [35]

Answer:

0.41 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale on the map is 1 in 86 mi.

This means that, 1 cm on the map represents 86 miles in real life, or on earth.

Then we're told that in real life, a distance is 35 miles, and how far they are on the map.

If 1 cm equals 86 miles, then we can say that x cm equals 35 miles

1 cm ----> 86

x cm ----> 35

x * 86 = 35 * 1

x = 35 / 86

x = 0.41 cm

Therefore, they must be 0.41 cm farther or closer apart on the map scale.

5 0
2 years ago
ASAP!!! please help! thanks.​
Neko [114]

Answer:

I think A is the right answer

4 0
2 years ago
Find the slope of the line that passes through the pair of points (2,6) , (7,0)
iVinArrow [24]
Slope is defined as the change in y-coordinate over the change in x, so if you find the change then you can find the slope.
\frac{change~in~y}{change ~in~x} =\frac{0-6}{7-2}=\frac{-6}{5}
Thus, your slope is -6/5.
8 0
3 years ago
I am supposed to simplify 1/a-b - 1/b-a
Andre45 [30]

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

\frac{1}{a-b} - \frac{1}{b-a}

Before subtracting the fractions, we require them to have common denominator.

Multiply the numerator/denominator of the second fraction by - 1

\frac{1}{b-a} × \frac{-1}{-1} = \frac{-1}{a-b}

We now have

\frac{1}{a-b} - \frac{-1}{a-b} ← common denominators

= \frac{1}{a-b} + \frac{1}{a-b}

= \frac{1+1}{a-b}

= \frac{2}{a-b}

5 0
3 years ago
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