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Soloha48 [4]
3 years ago
7

Just answer the first one at least

Physics
2 answers:
Anna007 [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

D

Explanation: That is the lowest point in a cycle

xz_007 [3.2K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

I just had a question the same as this.

The answer is: Points (B) & (F)!

Hope it helps! :D

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A skateboarder with a mass of 60 kg moves with a force of 20 N. What is her acceleration?
Zanzabum

Explanation:

Solution,

  • Mass(m)= 60 kg
  • Force (F)= 20 N
  • Acceleration (a)= ?

We know that,

  • F=ma
  • a=F/m
  • a=20/60
  • a=0.333 m/s²

So, her acceleration is 0.333 m/s².

4 0
3 years ago
A 0.5-kilogram apple falls from a height of 2 meters to 1.50 meters. Ignoring frictional effects, what is the kinetic energy of
spin [16.1K]

The  final kinetic energy of the ball is 2.45 J

Explanation:

We can solve this problem by using the law of conservation of energy.

In absence of frictional effect, the mechanical energy of the apple must be conserved during the fall. So we can write:

U_i +K_i = U_f + K_f

where :

U_i is the initial potential energy, at the top

K_i is the initial kinetic energy, at the top

U_f is the final potential energy, at the bottom

K_f is the final kinetic energy, at the bottom

By explicing the potential energy, we can rewrite the equation as:

mgh_i + K_i = mgh_f + K_f

where:

m = 0.5 kg is the mass of the apple

g=9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

h_i = 2 m is the initial height

h_f=1.50 m is the final height

The initial kinetic energy is zero, since the ball starts from rest:

K_i = 0

Therefore we can solve the equation for K_f, the final kinetic energy of the ball:

K_f = mg(h_i-h_f)=(0.5)(9.8)(2-1.50)=2.45 J

Learn more about kinetic energy and potential energy:

brainly.com/question/6536722

brainly.com/question/1198647  

brainly.com/question/10770261  

#LearnwithBrainly

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP ASAP!!! CORRECT ANSWER ONLY PLEASE!!! I CANNOT RETAKE THIS AND I NEED ALL CORRECT ANSWERS ONLY!!!
valentinak56 [21]

Answer:

Electric Current

Explanation:

The flow (or free movement) of these electrons through a wire.

Pretty sure :)

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An AC generator consists of 20 circular loops of wire with an area of 75 cm2. It has a maximum induced voltage of 24 V. If its a
Monica [59]

Faraday's law allows us to find the magnetic field that produces the emf in the rotating system is:

  • The magnetic field is:  B = 0.424 T

Faraday's law of induction states that when the magnetic flux changes in time, an induced electromotive force is produced.

            fem = - \frac{d \Phi_B }{dt}  

where fem is the induced electromotive force and Ф the flux,

The magnetic flux is the scalar product of the field and the area.

           \Phi_B = B . A = B A  \ cos \theta  

In this case we have several turns, so the expression remains.

           fem = - N B A \ \frac{d cos \theta}{dt}  

Indicate that the turns rotate at a constant frequency, therefore we can use the uniform rotational motion ratio.

           

           θ = w t

We substitute

 

         fem = - N B A \ \frac{d \ cos \ wt}{dt}\\fem =  N B A w sin \ wt

the maximum induced electromotive force occurs when the sine function is ±1

          fem = N B A w

They indicate that the fem = 24 V, the number of the turn is N = 20, the area is A = 75 cm² = 75 10⁻⁴ m² and the frequency f = 60 Hz

Frequency and angular velocity are related.

           w = 2π f

We substitute.

           fem = N B A 2π f

           B = \frac{fem }{2 \pi \ NA \ f}  

Let's calculate.

         B= \frac{24 }{2\pi \ 20 \ 75 \ 10^{-4} 60}B = 24 / 2pi 20 75 10-4 60

         B = 0.424 T

In conclusion, using Faraday's law we can find the magnetic field that produces the emf in the rotating system is:

  • The magnetic field is; B = 0.424 T

Learn more about Faraday's law here:  brainly.com/question/24617581

8 0
3 years ago
Five identical quintuplets leave earth when they reach the age of 21, in the year 2121. Each quintuplet goes on a spaceship jour
Elena-2011 [213]

Answer:

Explanation:

This is a problem based on time dilation , a theory given by Albert Einstein .

The formula of time dilation is as follows .

t₁ = \frac{t}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2} } }

t is time measured on the earth and t₁ is time measured by man on ship .

A ) Given t = 20 years , t₁ = ? v = .4c

\frac{20}{\sqrt{1-\frac{.16c^2}{c^2} } }

=1.09 x 20

t₁= 21.82 years

B ) Given t = 5 years , t₁ = ? v = .2c

\frac{5}{\sqrt{1-\frac{.04c^2}{c^2} } }

=1.02 x 5

t₁= 5.1 years

C ) Given t = 10 years , t₁ = ? v = .8c

\frac{10}{\sqrt{1-\frac{.64c^2}{c^2} } }

=1.67 x 10

t₁= 16.7  years

D ) Given t = 10 years , t₁ = ? v = .4c

\frac{10}{\sqrt{1-\frac{.16c^2}{c^2} } }

=1.09 x 10

t₁= 10.9  years

E ) Given t = 20 years , t₁ = ? v = .8c

\frac{20}{\sqrt{1-\frac{.64c^2}{c^2} } }

=1.67 x 20

t₁= 33.4   years

7 0
3 years ago
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