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leva [86]
3 years ago
6

Hi does any one know how to solve this y=__x+__

Mathematics
1 answer:
Karolina [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

y = 50x + 25

Step-by-step explanation:

y = mx + b

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Which inequality best represents that ice cream at −5°C is cooler than ice cream at 4°C?
konstantin123 [22]
(<) this means less than 
(>) this means greater than
So since the question doesnt say anything about -4°C we can automatically cross out A and B 
They are both negative! but when you have a negative. Its going to be less than a positive 
So this means 4°C is greater than -5°C 
or in other words
D.) 4°C > -5°C
hope this helps! 
and dont forget 2 
MARK ME BRAINLIEST! 
=)
3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help me plzzz help me plzzz ​
labwork [276]

Answer:

i 25000 cause 250×100 is 25000 ii. 100 cause 10×10 is 100

Step-by-step explanation:

about ii it didnt say anything like the quantity but thats for one tile

3 0
3 years ago
Five cards are drawn from a standard 52-card playing deck. A gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and on
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

The probability that he ends up with a full house is 0.0083.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and one 6. He discards the 3 and the 6 and is dealt two more cards.

We have to find the probability that he ends up with a full house (3 cards of one kind, 2 cards of another kind).

We know that gambler will end up with a full house in two different ways (knowing that he has given two more cards);

  • If he is given with two kings.
  • If he is given one king and one ace.

Only in these two situations, he will end up with a full house.

Now, there are three kings and two aces left which means at the time of drawing cards from the deck, the available cards will be 47.

So, the ways in which we can draw two kings from available three kings is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_2 }{^{47}C_2}   {∵ one king is already there}

              =  \frac{3!}{2! \times 1!}\times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}           {∵ ^{n}C_r = \frac{n!}{r! \times (n-r)!} }

              =  \frac{3}{1081}  =  0.0028

Similarly, the ways in which one king and one ace can be drawn from available 3 kings and 2 aces is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_1 \times ^{2}C_1 }{^{47}C_2}

                                                                   =  \frac{3!}{1! \times 2!}\times \frac{2!}{1! \times 1!} \times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}

                                                                   =  \frac{6}{1081}  =  0.0055

Now, probability that he ends up with a full house = \frac{3}{1081} + \frac{6}{1081}

                                                                                    =  \frac{9}{1081} = <u>0.0083</u>.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLRASE HELPPP PLS IM STUCK
GaryK [48]

Answer:

Khan Academy.

Step-by-step explanation:

You can go on khan academy and search up "percentages and numbers." The videos should immediately pop up. there are also lessons if you don't want to risk getting your problem wrong. If you are still confused and do not understand please just comment and I will respond.

3 0
2 years ago
You are given a loaded six-sided die. Such a die can produce any integer from 1 to 6. The die rolls a 4 three times as often as
beks73 [17]
I would say 6 bc it’s a die of 6 and u get it 6 times
6 0
3 years ago
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