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dalvyx [7]
3 years ago
15

You kick a soccer ball across a field the ball travels across the field and slowly comes to a stop. Since the ball slowly comes

to a stop what does this mean about the net force on the ball as it rolls across the field?
Physics
1 answer:
marysya [2.9K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It slowly decreases and the friction acting on it slowing it down becomes the bigger net force, if that makes sense :)

Explanation:

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A boy throws a rock with an initial velocity of 2.15 m/s at 30.0° above the horizontal. If air resistance is negligible, how lon
vladimir1956 [14]

Answer:

t = 0.11 second

The time taken to reach the maximum height of the trajectory is 0.11 second

Explanation:

Taking the vertical component of the initial velocity;

Vy = Vsin∅

Initial velocity V = 2.15 m/s

Angle ∅ = 30°

Vy = 2.15sin30 = 2.15 × 0.5

Vy = 1.075 m/s

The height of the rock at time t during the flight is;

From the equation of motion;

h(t) = Vy×t - 0.5gt^2

g= acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s^2

Substituting the given values;

h(t) = 1.075t - 0.5(9.8)t^2

h(t) = 1.075t - 4.9t^2

The rock is at maximum height when dh/dt = 0;

dh(t)/dt = 1.075 - 9.8t = 0

1.075 - 9.8t = 0

9.8t = 1.075

t = 1.075/9.8

t = 0.109693877551 s

t = 0.11 second

The time taken to reach the maximum height of the trajectory is 0.11 second

4 0
4 years ago
In each of two coils the rate of change of the magnetic flux in a single loop is the same. The emf induced in coil 1, which has
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

303

Explanation:

We are given that

Emf in coil 1,E_1=3.13 V

Emf induced in coil 2,E_2=4.16 V

Number of loops in coil 1,N_1=228

We have to find the number of loops in coil 2.

Rat of change of magnetic flux in a single loop is same.

Let \phi_1 and \phi_2 be the magnetic flux in coil 1 and coil 2.

\frac{d\phi_1}{dt}=\frac{d\phi_2}{dt}

\frac{V_2}{V_1}=\frac{N_2}{N_1}

Using the formula

\frac{E_2}{E_1}=\frac{N_2}{N_1}

\frac{4.16}{3.13}=\frac{N_2}{228}

N_2=\frac{4.16}{3.13}\times 228

N_2=303

Hence, the number of loops in coil 2=303

5 0
3 years ago
g A rotating wheel requires 5.00 s to rotate 28.0 revolutions. Its angular velocity at the end of the 5.00-s interval is 96.0 ra
Setler [38]

Answer:

The angular acceleration of the wheel is 15.21 rad/s².

Explanation:

Given that,

Time = 5 sec

Final angular velocity = 96.0 rad/s

Angular displacement = 28.0 rev = 175.84 rad

Let \alpha be the angular acceleration

We need to calculate the angular acceleration

Using equation of motion

\theta=\omega_{i} t+\dfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^2

Put the value in the equation

175.84=\omega_{i}\times 5+\dfrac{1}{2}\times\alpha\times(5)^2

175.84=\omega_{i}\times 5+12.5\alpha......(I)

Again using equation of motion

\omega_{f}=\omega_{i}+\alpha t

Put the value in the equation

96.0=\omega_{i}+\alpha \times 5

On multiply by 5 in both sides

480=\omega_{i}\times 5+\alpha\times 25....(II)

On subtract equation (I) from equation (II)

480-175.84=\alpha(25-5)

304.16=\alpha\times20

\alpha=\dfrac{304.16}{20}

\alpha=15.21\ rad/s^2

Hence, The angular acceleration of the wheel is 15.21 rad/s².

5 0
3 years ago
Neglecting air resistance, when does a struck baseball accelerate downward at a rate of 9.8 m/s2?
olga2289 [7]
A baseball is accelerated downward at 9.8 m/s^2 when the only vertical force acting upon the baseball is gravity.
3 0
4 years ago
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Answer:

IT IS A BC ION KNOW WHY

Explanation:

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2 years ago
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