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Lera25 [3.4K]
3 years ago
10

Pleaseeee helpppp !!!!!! Will mark Brianliest !!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Reil [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

AC=2DE

48-4x=2(64-7x)=128-14x

14x-4x=128-48

10x=80

x=80/10=8

DE=64-7x=64-7*8=64-56=8

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I can’t figure this out!! please helppp
krok68 [10]

Answer:

The third answer

Step-by-step explanation:

(side note: You probably need to use a calculator that can calculate pi)

The formula to find the area of a circle is pi r squared.

In this case, pi times r squared is 19.63495....... continued

This is probably going to be rounded

so... 19.63

For all of the circles, this is multiplied by 4.

This is 78.52

The area of the square is 100 cm since 10 times 10 is 100

You take 100 cm and then subtract it by 78.54

Voila! now you have 21.46

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
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This is the awnser to the problem
5 0
3 years ago
Two numbers are respectively 40% and 60% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

7:8

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
The bending of a bean varies directly as its mas. A beam is bent 20mm by a mass 0f 40kg. how much will the beam bend with a mass
Naddik [55]

Answer:

The beam will bend by 50 mm with a mass of 100kg?

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step in solving the problem of direct variation is setting up the relation mathematically.

We can do this as follows:

The bending of the beam varies directly as its mass.

20  \alpha  40kg

\alpha here is the symbol representing direct variation. To remove this and replace it with an equality sign, we have to introduce a constant of proportionality, k

20 = k \times 40

k = 20 /40 = 0.5

We can now use this to find the distance the beam will bend with a mass of 100kg?

This will be

Bending = 0.5 \times 100 =50mm

There fore, the beam will bend by 50 mm with a mass of 100kg?

6 0
4 years ago
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