The answer is -11 and -13
The profitability index of an investment with cash flows in years 0 thru 4 of -340, 120, 130, 153, and 166, respectively, and a discount rate of 16 percent is: 15%.
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Profitability index</h3>
First step is to find the Net present value (NPV) of the given cash flow using discount rate PVF 16% and PV of cash flow which in turn will give us net present value of 49.7.
Second step is to calculate the profitability index
Profitability index = 49.7/340
Profitability index = .15×100
Profitability index=15%
Therefore the profitability index of an investment with cash flows in years 0 thru 4 of -340, 120, 130, 153, and 166, respectively, and a discount rate of 16 percent is: 15%.
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Step-by-step explanation:
If the order of the cards doesn't matter:
₅₂C₅ = 52! / (5! (52−5)!)
₅₂C₅ = 2,598,960
If the order of the cards does matter:
52 × 51 × 50 × 49 × 48 = 311,875,200
Answer:
-0.4 should be in between 0 and -0.5, however be as close to -0.5 as possible while not being ON -0.5.
3 4/5 should be in between 3 and 4, so you can split 4/5 into 8/10 which are equal to each other. Then you can pretend to split the 3 and 4 gap into 10 equal pieces. After you split the gap, count 8 parts to the left of 3.
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope you understand what I mean.
I’m pretty sure the answer is either D or E but I’m not positive !
