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aksik [14]
3 years ago
15

Brainist to who answers this! ​

Mathematics
2 answers:
kumpel [21]3 years ago
7 0
13t ^2+ 2t ^2+ 9 this is the answer to the problem
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

13t² + 2t + 9

Step-by-step explanation:

(9t² - 3t + 5) - (-4t² + 5t + 4)

Solving like terms

-(-4t²) becomes + 4t²

(9t² + 4t²) + (-3t + 5t) + (5+4) =

13t² + 2t + 9

If my answer is incorrect, pls correct me!

If you like my answer and explanation, mark me as brainliest!

-Chetan K

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Ms. Young acquired a loan of $40,000 at her local bank. The loan has a simple interest rate of 6% per year. What is the amount o
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

12.000

Step-by-step explanation:

40000x6=  240000/100=  2400x5

8 0
3 years ago
$46 shoes 2.9 tax round to the nearest cent
Cerrena [4.2K]
$46 with 2.9% tax is:

($46 * 0.029) + $46 = $47.334

2.9% is the same as 0.029, since % means divide by 100 (move decimal 2 places to the left).
You first multiply by 0.029 to see how much the tax is, then you add back the original $46.
5 0
4 years ago
If the scale of a map is 2 centimeters=21 kilometers, then what is the actual distance of 14 millimeters?​
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

14.7 km

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Scale of a map is 2 cm = 21 km.

We know that, 1 cm = 10 mm

Therefore, 2 cm = 2 \times 10 = 20 mm

Therefore, the scale of the map is, 20 mm = 21 km

Now, let the actual distance be 'd' km for 14 mm.

Using proportion of the two quantities, we get:

\frac{d}{14}=\frac{21}{20}

Multiplying both sides by 14, we get:

\frac{d}{14}\times 14=\frac{21}{20}\times 14\\d=\frac{21\times 14}{20}=\frac{147}{10}=14.7\ km

Therefore, the actual distance of 14 mm is 14.7 km.

8 0
3 years ago
Vince makes 75% of his free throw attempts. He wants to create a tool that will simulate his free throw shooting and allow him t
Valentin [98]

Answer:

i pooped and then u poop right now

7 0
3 years ago
when solving an equation rylee get to the last line of her work and is left with 4=4 what does this mean
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

This means that the equation has infinitely many solutions.

Step-by-step explanation:

Say I have a problem like 1+x=1+x.

Subtracting 1 from both sides gives me x=x.

Any number can be x b/c any number equals itself.

You can prove this by checking: 4=4; 1=1; 1000=1000; -356=-356; \sqrt{3} =\sqrt{3}

Any number will equal itself, so the equation has infinitely many solutions.

6 0
3 years ago
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