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LenaWriter [7]
3 years ago
8

Leading up to the signing of a contract with an integration clause, a buyer sent an e-mail to the seller of a beautiful, new $45

,000 boat asking, "You provide financing, right?" The seller responded, "Yes, of course." The contract, which the parties signed yesterday, said nothing about financing. Right after signing, the seller said, "OK, let's get you set up with financing!" He then ran the buyer's credit, which was not good. The buyer was not approved for financing through the seller's only source. The buyer believes that he, therefore, is not liable for the cost of the boat. Is the buyer correct?
Business
1 answer:
Soloha48 [4]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: No, because of the integration clause

Explanation:

Based on the information given, the buyer isn't correct as a result of the integration clause.

The integration clause, is a clause in a written contract that stipulates that a particular contract is complete and that the parties involved agreed to the contract and it's final.

This contract supersedes every other informal understandings and all other oral agreements relating as well. Therefore, the buyer is liable for the cost of the boat.

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The characteristic of value that is represented here is <u>C. Situs.</u>

<h3>What is Situs?</h3>

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Thus, the characteristic of value represented in this scenario is not scarcity, nolo contendere, or caveat emptor, but <u>Option C. Situs.</u>

Learn more about the location of a real estate at brainly.com/question/26010601

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