f(x)=lnx
y=f(x)
dy/dx= 1/x
tangent at (x,y) has slope 1/x
eqn of tangent is y = mx + c
since the tangent passes through origin, c=0
substitute y = lnx and m= 1/x to above eqn
lnx = 1
x=e
y=lne=1
Answer:
How much money will be in Account A at the end of 3 years? $ ⇒ 1092.73
How much money will be in Account B at the end of 3 years? $112
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is A. A, D the reason being, is because polygons have sides C, and B have no sides so we can eliminate those immediately.
to solve for y, we must multiply by t on both side to get ride of the t in the denominator. By doing this, we will get:

on the right side.
Subtracting 3, and we have successfully isolated y.
It would be impossible to get a quantitative value for y if we don't know the value of t.