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n200080 [17]
3 years ago
5

juan and jose are in charge of buying candy for pinatas. Each pinata will hold 6 pounds of candy how many puonds of candy will t

hey need to fill 12 pinatas
Mathematics
1 answer:
Lady_Fox [76]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

75.36

Step-by-step explanation:

bc it sinple math if you think about it

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Jackie wants to burn 2000 calories in one week she can burn 250 calories per hour doing aerobics. How many hours should Jackie d
Crank

Answer:

8 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

If Jackie wants to burn 2000 calories in one week but only burns 250 calories per hour

then, to solve how many hours you have to divide

2000/250= 8

therefor Jackie has to do aerobics for 8 hours that week to burn 2000 calories

8 0
3 years ago
5 Find 6 in Surface Area​
iVinArrow [24]

Answer:

8 x 6 = 48

48 divided by 2 = 24

24 x 2 = 48

10 x 12 = 120

120 x 2 = 240

8 x 12 = 96

Add all given areas:

48 + 96 + 240 = 384 in2 is your answer.

3 0
2 years ago
Solve the system of equations:
Ahat [919]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

z = 3

2y + z = 1

2y + 3 = 1        {substituting z =3}

2y = 1 -3

2y = -2

y = - 2/2

y = -1

2x +3y +2z = 13

2x + 3 * (-1) + 2*3 = 13      { {substituting z =3} and y = -1}

2x -3 + 6 =13

2x + 3 = 13

2x  = 13 - 3

2x= 10

x = 10/2

x = 5

8 0
3 years ago
A silent auction was held for a quilt donated for charity. Fifteen bids that were drawn randomly are listed here. Find the value
Alik [6]
45th percentile means that 45% of the data fall below that number while 55% (that is, 100-45) fall above it.

Now, arranging the number in ascending order;
$60, $85, $95, $105, $120, $145, $155, $175, $190, $215, $235, $240, $260, $285, $325

The total number of counts = 15
Then,
Index = 15*45% = 15*0.45 = 6.75

Round up,
Index = 7

The,
7th number = $155

Therefore, 45th percentile value of the data = $155
8 0
3 years ago
Binomial Theorem, proof
IrinaVladis [17]

It follows from the definition of the binomial coefficient:

\dbinom nr=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

So we have

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(n+1)\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!(n-r)!}

That is, (n+1) gets absorbed into the numerator's factorial, and we introduct (r+1) into the denominator. Now, (n+1)-(r+1)=n-r, so we get

(n+1)\dbinom nr=(r+1)\dfrac{(n+1)!}{(r+1)!((n+1)-(r+1))!}=(r+1)\dbinom{n+1}{r+1}

as required.

4 0
3 years ago
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