Answer:
4.5%
Explanation:
Stock R (Beta) = 1.5
Stock S (Beta) = 0.75
Expected rate of return on an average stock (Rm)= 10%
Risk free rate (Rf) = 4%
Required Return (Re) = Rf +(Rm-Rf) B
Required Return = 0.04 + (0.10-0.04) B
Required Return = 0.04 + 0.06B
Stock R = 0.04 + (0.06 * 1.50)
Stock R = 0.04 + 0.09
Stock R = 0.13
Stock R = 13%
Stock S = 0.04 + (0.06 * 0.75)
Stock S = 0.04 + 0.045
Stock S = 0.085
Stock S = 8.5%
Here, the more risky stock is R and less risky stock is S. Since, R has more beta than the Stock S.
= 13% - 8.5%
= 4.5%
Answer: single use plan
Explanation: In simple words,single use plan refers to the plan that is made for achieving a goal that will not repeat in future.
A program plan refers to the plan that an organisation makes with an objective of outlining the activities and events that the employees have to follow for achieving organisational goals.
Hence, from the above we can conclude that a program is a single use plan as it outlines activities for a specific project that needs to be performed.
Answer:
Step 1:
Start by setting it up with the divisor 20 on the left side and the dividend 16 on the right side like this:
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 2:
The divisor (20) goes into the first digit of the dividend (1), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 3:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
0
Step 4:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (1 - 0 = 1) and write the answer below.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1
Step 5:
Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (6) like this:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 6:
The divisor (20) goes into the bottom number (16), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 7:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
0
Step 8:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (16 - 0 = 16) and write the answer at the bottom.
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
- 0
1 6
You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.
The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.
Therefore, the answer to 16 divided by 20 calculated using Long Division is:
0
16 Remainder
Explanation:
Responder:
Real Madrid
Explicación:
El Real Madrid ha ganado la Liga de Campeones un récord asombroso 13 veces. (Todo lo que hice fue buscar en Google "quién es el equipo con más campeones" y eso es lo que obtuve) Espero que esto ayude.
Answer:
Coverage D
Explanation:
Coverage D basically refers to insuring against the loss of use of your house, i.e. you cannot live in your house temporarily. Coverage D will provide for additional living expenses to the insured in order to cover lodging expenses while the insured property is being repaired and can be used again.
