Answer:
B. a fixed-price contract.
Explanation:
"A fixed price contract places minimum administrative burden on the contracting parties, but subjects the contractor to the maximum risk arising from full responsibility for all cost escalations. Also called firm price contract."
Mr. Plow couldn't come back to Springfield because he took full responsability for all cost escalations.
Reference: WebFinance Inc. “What Is Fixed Price Contract? Definition and Meaning.” BusinessDictionary.com, 2019
Answer:
The correct answer is e. -$4,940.
Explanation:
This problem requires us to calculate the amount of the cash flow to creditors. The cash flow to creditor means all payment made to creditors in form of interest payment or principal payment. The amount borrowed is deducted from it. The detail calculation is given below.
Interest = Earning before interest and taxes - Net income - Taxes
Interest = 27,130 - 16,220 - 5,450
Interest = $ 5,460
Cash flow to creditors = 31,600 + 5,460 - 42,000 = -$ 4,940
Granval thinks a partnership will reduce his personal financial responsibility. this is true only if Granval is not a general partner.
General partnership is a type of business agreement which is made between two or more individuals who agree to share all the assets, profits as well as liabilities of the business.
Because of the simplicity and tax benefits in the general partnership, a general partnership is one of the most common legal business entities.
However, it's very important to consider that each partner is personally responsible for the business, including debts and lawsuits, and is held liable for the actions of their partners.
To know more about general partnership here:
brainly.com/question/12983082
#SPJ4
Answer: The amount of bad debt expense the company would record would be $3,470.
Explanation: Bad debt expense is an estimate of accounts receivable that is deemed as uncollectible while allowance for doubtful accounts is a balance sheet allowance account that warehouses the total balance of accounts receivable that is deemed irrecoverable.
In this scenario, Simple Co. estimated, using the aging method, that the allowance for doubtful accounts is $3,800. However, it had a credit balance of $330 in the same account. The reinstate the allowance account to $3,800, $3,470 has to be adjusted for by debiting bad debt expense and crediting allowance for doubtful account.
Answer:
$5,000 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total variable overhead variance is given below:
= Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output × Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour - Actual total variable overhead
= 32,000 hours × $2.50 - $75,000
= $80,000 - $75,000
= $5,000 favorable
Since the favorable is more than the actual so it should be favorable