Answer:
5/6 cups of chocolate chips
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a recipe , 2 1/2 * c * u * p chocolate chips are needed to make a large batch of cookies. Manuel decided to make only 1/3 of the cookies . How many cups of chocolate chips will Manuel need ?
From the above question:
1 batch of cookies = 2 1/2 cups of chocolate chips
1/3 batch of cookies = x
Cross Multiply
x = 1/3 × 2 1/2
x = 1/3 × 5/2
x = 5/6 cups of chocolate chips
Hence, Manuel would need 5/6 cups of chocolate chips for 1/3 bath of cookies.
Answer:
No, the solution of the system is (-1,5)
1/6x = 2.....multiply both sides by the reciprocal 6/1
(6/1)(1/6)x = 2(6/1)
1x or just x = 12
Answer:
14.81%
Step-by-step explanation:
A fair six-sided dice has a total of six sides meaning that there are 6 possible outcomes for each dice roll. If two of the faces on the dice are red, then the possibility of rolling a red on a single dice roll would be 2/6, while the probability of rolling anything else would be 4/6 because there are 4 other sides left. Now if we roll three seperate dice, in order to calculate the probability of getting only one red face we need to multiply the probability of getting a red face on the first dice by the probability of the other two dice getting anything else.
2/6 * 4/6 * 4/6 = 32/216 or 0.1481
We can multiply this decimal by 100 to get the percentage value...
0.1481 * 100 = 14.81%
The measure of angle 2 is 
Explanation:
Given that 
and 
are complementary angles.
Also, the measure of angle 1 is 
We need to determine the measure of
Since, we know that the complementary angles add up to 90°, then the angles and add up to 90°.
Thus, we have,
Substituting the value of in the above expression, we have,
Subtracting both sides by 76°, we get,
Simplifying, we have,
Thus, the measure of angle 2 is
