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Shalnov [3]
2 years ago
9

(9+8)+32=49 which property is this

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sergio [31]2 years ago
6 0
Associativity means
(A+B)+C=A+(B+C)=A+B+C

Substitute A=9, B=8, C=32 to apply to this problem.
You might be interested in
FIND BD !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Viktor [21]

BD = 2x-4

But it's also BE - CE + CD

BE is 3x-1

CE is 2x-3

CD is 2

so

BD = 3x-1 -(2x-3) +2

simplified

BD = 1x +4

since BD = BD (obviously), we can also say that the righthand sides of the two equation must be equal

2x -4 = 1x +4

let's solve for x and that put it into either of the 2 equations.

2x -4 = 1x +4

subtract 1x on both sides

x -4 = 4

add 4 on both sides

x = 8

substitute x for its value in 2x -4 = 1x +4

(this way we double check BD in two expressions at once. the equation should come out true, meaning same value for BD in each expression. both sides should be equal).

2*8 -4 = 1*8 +4

12 = 12

seems true

BD is safely 12

4 0
3 years ago
Find two consecutive odd integers whose sum is 116 (and please have steps) thank you
matrenka [14]
It's 57 and 59
Call (n) is the first odd interger => the second odd interger is (n+2)
=> n + (n + 2) = 116 
=> n + n + 2 = 116 
=> 2n = 114 
=> n = 57 
First odd interger is 57 and the second odd interger is 59 .
Sorry my English so bad =)))
6 0
3 years ago
6 - y = 12 is what lol
notsponge [240]

Answer:

=−6

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Andrew folds a sheet of paper in half 5 times. When opens it up,how many sections will there be?
EleoNora [17]
10 pieces because five plus five is ten
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose that in a casino game the payout is a random variable X . If X is positive, you gain money, if negative, you lose.
Vanyuwa [196]

Answer:

the conditional probability that X = 1 , X = 2 and X = 3 is  0.7333 (73.33%) , 0.25 (25%) and 0.0167 (1.67%) respectively

Step-by-step explanation:

a player wins money when i>0 then defining event W= gain money , then

P(W) = p(i>0) = p(1)+p(2)+p(3)

then the conditional probability can be calculated through the theorem of Bayes

P(X=1/W)= P(X=1 ∩ W)/P(W)

where

P(X=1 ∩ W)= probability that the payout is 1 and earns money

P(X=1 / W)= probability that the payout is 1 given money was earned

then

P(X=1/W)= P(X=1 ∩ W)/P(W) = P(X=1) / P(W) = p(1) /[p(1)+p(2)+p(3)] = 11/40 /(11/40+3/32+1/160 ) = 0.7333 (73.33%)

similarly

P(X=2/W)=p(2) /[p(1)+p(2)+p(3)] = 3/32 /(11/40+3/32+1/160 ) = 0.25 (25%)

P(X=3/W)=p(2) /[p(1)+p(2)+p(3)] = 1/160 /(11/40+3/32+1/160 ) = 0.0167 (1.67%)

8 0
3 years ago
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