All categories

2 years ago

What is the acceleration of an object with a mass of

Physics

1 answer:

aev [14]2 years ago

3 0

Heya!!

For calculate aceleration, lets applicate second law of Newton:

$\boxed{F=ma}$

<u>Δ Being Δ</u>

F = Force = 183 N

m = Mass = 367 kg

a = Aceleration = ?

⇒ Let's replace according the formula and clear "a":

$\boxed{a=183 \ N / 367\ kg}$

⇒ Resolving

$\boxed{ a = 0.49 \ m/s^{2}}$

Result:

The aceleration is <u>0,49 meters per second squared (m/s²)</u>

Good Luck!!

You might be interested in

Dr. Eriksson is working on a material called selenium. She is adding a certain number and type of atoms to the selenium, which w

Katarina [22]

Answer:

Selenium is a semiconductor

Explanation:

Selenium is a semiconductor.

Elements in the column IV and VI of the periodic table are referred to as Semiconductor.

Selenium lies in the column VI along with Tellurium

Some other elements of the column IV are silicon, germanium, and tin

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A car driver traveling at a speed of 108km per hour ,sees a traffic light and stopped after travelling for 20seconds .Find the a

navik [9.2K]

Answer:

– 2.5 m/s²

Explanation:

We have,

• Initial velocity, u = 180 km/h = 50 m/s

• Final velocity, v = 0 m/s (it stops)

• Time taken, t = 20 seconds

We have to find acceleration, a.

$\longrightarrow$ a = (v ― u)/t

$\longrightarrow$ a = (0 – 50)/20 m/s²

$\longrightarrow$ a = –50/20 m/s²

$\longrightarrow$ a = – 5/2 m/s²

$\longrightarrow$ a = – 2.5 m/s² (Velocity is decreasing) [Answer]

6 0

2 years ago

A ball has a mass of 1.5kg and is thrown straight up with a speed of 60m/s, what is the ball’s momentum:

madam [21]

Answer:

Assumption: the air resistance on this ball is negligible. Take $g = 10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ .

a. The momentum of the ball would be approximately $60\;\rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ two seconds after it is tossed into the air.

b. The momentum of the ball would be approximately $\rm \left(-45\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}\right)$ three seconds after it reaches the highest point (assuming that it didn't hit the ground.) This momentum is smaller than zero because it points downwards.

Explanation:

The momentum $p$ of an object is equal its mass $m$ times its velocity $v$ . That is: $\vec{p} = m \cdot \vec{v}$ .

Assume that the air resistance on this ball is negligible. If that's the case, then the ball would accelerate downwards towards the ground at a constant $g \approx -10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ . In other words, its velocity would become approximately $10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ more negative every second.

The initial velocity of the ball is $60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . After two seconds, its velocity would have become $60\;\rm m \cdot s^{-1} + 2\; \rm s \times \left(-10\;\rm m \cdot s^{-1}\right) = 40\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . The momentum of the ball at that time would be around $p = m \cdot v \approx 60\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ .

When the ball is at the highest point of its trajectory, the velocity of the ball would be zero. However, the ball would continue to accelerate downwards towards the ground at a constant $g \approx -10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ . That's how the ball's velocity becomes negative.

After three more seconds, the velocity of the ball would be $0\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1} + 3\; \rm s \times \left(-10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}\right) = -30 \; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . Accordingly, the ball's momentum at that moment would be $p = m \cdot v \approx \left(-45\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}\right)$ .

3 0

3 years ago

True or false?

Ksju [112]

1. False

Explanation: it's exactly the opposite. In fact, Lenz's law states that the induced current and the induced emf in a conductor are generated in such a direction that opposes to the change in magnetic flux through the coil. This is summarized by the negative sign in the Faraday's Newmann Lenz law:

$\epsilon= -\frac{d\Phi }{dt}$

where $\epsilon$ is the emf induced and $\frac{d\Phi}{dt}$ is the rate of change of magnetic flux through the coil.

Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of energy. In fact, we have:

- If the magnetic flux through a coil is increasing, then the induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field generated by the coil is opposite to the direction of the external magnetic field, in order to decrease the total flux

- If the magnetic flux through a coil is decreasing, then the induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field generated by the coil is in the same direction as the external field, in order to increase the total flux

2. False

Explanation: the magnetic flux through a surface is given by

$\Phi = BA cos \theta$

where

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field

A is the surface area

$\theta$ is the angle between the direction of B and the normal vector to the surface

As we see, the magnetic flux depends not only on B and A, but also on the orientation of the coil with respect to the magnetic field.

3. False

Explanation:

- Sound waves are mechanical waves: mechanical waves are waves consisting of oscillations of the particles in a medium. Due to their nature, therefore, mechanical waves can propagate only in the presence of a medium

- Electromagnetic waves are NOT mechanical waves: they consist of oscillations of electric and magnetic fields, in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Since em waves are not mechanical waves, they do NOT need a medium to propagate, since they can also travel through a vacuum; therefore the original statement is false.

5 0

2 years ago

Which defintion of heat is most scientifically accurate

lukranit [14]

Hi there

Definition of heat

the quality of being hot; high temperature.

6 0

2 years ago