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3 years ago

Give the sum in simplest form: a/c + b/c = _____

Mathematics

1 answer:

djverab [1.8K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

(a+b)/c

Step-by-step explanation:

a/c+b/c

since they have the same denominator you can add the numerator together

(a+b)/c

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5/7^3=5(7^x)<br> Find X.<br> Thanks.

Zina [86]

Hello,

$\dfrac{5}{7^3}=5*7^x\\
5*7^{-3}=5*7^x\\

\boxed{x=-3}
$

8 0

2 years ago

A towel has a repeating pattern of 2 green stripes then 3 blue stripes and then one yellow stripe with tell has 20 Stripes altog

Anna35 [415]

12 is the answer because when you add the green and blue you get 5 and 5×4= 20 so you multiply the blue by 4 and the green by 4 and add them together which = 20. so 3×4=12 and 2×4=8 so your answer is again 12

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can someone help? I know the volume can someone help with the surface area?

TEA [102]

To find the surface area you will find the area of each flat surface or each face.

The faces are in the shape of a rectangle , so multiply the length by the width.

A = lw
Front/ Back-3 1/2 x 3 1/3 = 11 2/3 ft.²

Sides- 3 1/3 x 3 1/3 = 11 1/9 ft.²

Top/bottom - 3 1/2 x 3 1/3= 11 2/3 ft.²

Add together to get the total surface area.

11 1/9+11 1/9+11 2/3+11 2/3+11 2/3+11 2/3 = 68 8/9 ft.²

The total surface area is 68 8/9 ft.².

6 0

3 years ago

PLEASE HELP JUST KINDA CONFUSED ON THIS ONE I WILL MARK AS BRAINLIEST

WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

1 milliliter is 20 drops.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$

therefore, for this questions we have:

$\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%$

4 0

2 years ago