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Vikentia [17]
3 years ago
7

What type of planets does the asteroid belt orbit?​

Physics
1 answer:
mihalych1998 [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Main Asteroid Belt: The majority of known asteroids orbit within the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter, generally with not very elongated orbits. The belt is estimated to contain between 1.1 and 1.9 million asteroids larger than 1 kilometer (0.6 mile) in diameter, and millions of smaller ones.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Assortative mating changes ______ frequencies but does not change ______ frequencies.
andrew-mc [135]

Allele frequencies are unaffected by assortative mating, but genotype frequencies .

<h3>Assortative mating: </h3>

Individuals with similar phenotypes and genotypes mate with others more frequently than is anticipated under a random mating pattern in assortative mating, which is a mating pattern and a type of sexual selection.

<h3>Frequencies of genotypes:</h3>

A population's genotype frequency is calculated by dividing the number of people having a particular genotype by the overall population size. The genotype frequency in population genetics is the frequency or ratio (i.e., 0 f 1) among genotypes inside a population.

<h3>The frequency for alleles in biology:</h3>

The term "allele frequency" describes the prevalence of an allele in a population. It is calculated by calculating the number of times the allele occurs in the population and dividing by the sum of all the gene copies.

To know more about Assortative mating visit:

brainly.com/question/28238408

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
This is a velocity versus time graph of a car starting from rest. If the area under the line is 10 meters, what is the correspon
adelina 88 [10]

So the area under a velocity time graph is distance or displacement, if you have done calculus yet you will understand that if you take the integral of a velocity function then you end up with displacement. Thats for later understanding however.

So this appears to be a right triangle so we can find the area of a triangle as:

0.5bh = A

Since our area is 10 meters lets alter our formula a bit to fit the situation:

Our base here is time and our height is velocity so:

0.5tv = Δx

So we can read off the graph that our velocity at the end, or our final velocity appears to be near 2.0 m/s

So we have v, and Δx so lets isolate for time by dividing by v and 0.5

t = Δx / 0.5v

Now lets plug all that in:

t = 10 / 0.5(2)

t = 10 seconds

Hope this helped!

8 0
3 years ago
Option B.
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

it would be...

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
4. Two straight wires are parallel and carry currents of 1.2 A in opposite directions, as shown. Find the direction of the magne
ANEK [815]
The directions of magnetic force and magnetic field lines are shown in the figure.

The direction to find out the magnetic field lines is given by right hand curl rule. If the thumb shows the direction of current, then the curling fingers show the direction of magnetic field lines.

The direction of force can be given by right hand thumb rule, where

Thumb - Direction of magnetic field lines
Forefinger - Magnetic force
Centre finger - Current  

Such that forefinger, centre finger and thumb must be at 90 degrees to each other.


5 0
3 years ago
Block 1, with mass m1 and speed 3.6 m/s, slides along an x axis on a frictionless floor and then undergoes a one-dimensional ela
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

a) The block 1 slides 0.24 m into the rough region.

b) The block 2 slides 2.7 m

Explanation:

Hi there!

First, let´s find the final velocity of each block. With that velocities, we can calculate the kinetic energy of each block. The kinetic energy of the blocks will be equal to the work done by friction to stop them. From the equation of work, we can calculate the distance traveled by the blocks.

Since the collision is elastic, the momentum and kinetic energy of the system composed of the two blocks is constant.

The momentum of the system is calculated as the sum of the momenta of each block:

m1 · v1 + m2 · v2 = m1 · v1´ + m2 · v2´

Where:

m1 and m2 = mass of blocks 1 and 2 respectively.

v1 and v2 = velocity of blocks 1 and 2 respectively.

v1´ and v2´ = final velocity of blocks 1 and 2 respectively.

Using the data we have, we can solve the eqaution for v1´:

m1 · 3.6 m/s + 0.40 m1 · 0 = m1 · v1´ + 0.40 m1 · v2´

3.6 m/s · m1 = m1 · v1´ + 0.40 m1 · v2´

3.6 m/s = v1´ + 0.40 v2´

v1´ = 3.6 m/s - 0.40 v2´

The kinetic energy of the system also remains constant:

1/2 m1 · (v1)² + 1/2 m2 · (v2)² = 1/2 m1 · (v1´)² + 1/2 m2 · (v2´)²

Multiply by 2 both sides of the equation:

m1 · (v1)² + m2 · (v2)² = m1 · (v1´)² + m2 · (v2´)²

Let´s replace with the data:

m1 · (3.6 m/s)² + 0.40 m1 · 0 = m1 · (v1´)² + 0.40 m1 (v2´)²

divide by m1:

(3.6 m/s)² = (v1´)² + 0.40 (v2´)²

Replace v1´ = 3.6 m/s - 0.40 v2´

(3.6 m/s)² = (3.6 m/s - 0.40 v2´)² + 0.40 (v2´)²

Let´s solve for v2´:

(3.6 m/s)² = (3.6 m/s)² - 2.88 v2´ + 0.16 (v2´)² + 0.40 (v2´)²

0 = 0.56 (v2´)² - 2.88 v2´

0 = v2´(0.56 v2´ - 2.88)   v2´ = 0 (the initial velocity)

0 = 0.56 v2´ - 2.88

2.88/0.56 = v2´

v2´ = 5.1 m/s

Now let´s calculate v1´:

v1´ = 3.6 m/s - 0.40 v2´

v1´ = 3.6 m/s - 0.40 (5.1 m/s)

v1´ = 1.56 m/s

Now, let´s calculate the final kinetic energy (KE) of each block:

a) Block 1:

KE = 1/2 · m1 · (1.56 m/s)² = m1 · 1.2 m²/s²

The work done by friction is calculated as follows:

W = Fr · s

Where:

Fr = friction force.

s = traveled distance.

The friction force is calculated as follows:

Fr = N · μ

Where:

N = normal force.

μ = coefficient of friction.

And the normal force is calculated in this case as:

N = m1 · g

Where g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Then, the work done by friction will be:

W = m1 · g · μ · s

The kinetic energy of an object is the negative work that must be done on that object to bring it to stop. Then:

m1 · 1.2 m²/s² = m1 · g · μ · s

Solving for s:

s = m1 · 1.2 m²/s²  / m1 · g · μ

s = 1.2 m²/s²/ 9.8 m/s² · 0.50

s = 0.24 m

The block 1 slides 0.24 m into the rough region.

b) For block 2 the kinetic energy will be the following:

KE = 1/2 · 0.4 · m1 · (5.1 m/s)² = m1 · 5.2 m²/s²

The friction force will be:

Fr = 0.4 m1 · g · μ

And the work done will be:

W = 0.4 m1 · g · μ · s

Since W = ΔKE,

Then:

m1 · 5.2 m²/s² = 0.4 m1 · g · μ · s

Solving for s:

5.2 m²/s²/(0.4 · g · μ) = s

s =  5.2 m²/s²/(0.4 · 9.8 m/s² · 0.50)

s = 2.7 m

The block 2 slides 2.7 m

3 0
3 years ago
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