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Sindrei [870]
3 years ago
6

Help math homework sucks​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Citrus2011 [14]3 years ago
7 0

One is given the following information:

  • Triangle (ABC) is an isosceles triangle (meaning two of its sides are congruent
  • Side (AB = AC)

One property of an isosceles triangle is the base angles theorem. This states that in an isosceles triangle, the two angles that are opposite the congruent sides are also congruent. Applying this theorem here, one can state the following:

AB = AC\\\\m

The sum of angle measures in a triangle is (180) degrees. One can apply this here by stating the following:

m

Substitute in the proved information: express angle (<C) in terms of angle (<B).

m

m

Simplify, combine like terms.

m

m

Inverse operations: solve for angle (<B)

m

2(m

m

Simplify,

m

m

Thus, one has proven that the statement (m) is true.

Please note, this proof can be typed in a statement-reason format, where the bolded part of the written words above the statement is the reason.

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Answer:

A. \dfrac{28}{45}

B. \dfrac{16}{45}

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose 10 motors have been fabricated but that, in spite of tests performed on the individual motors, 2 will not operate satisfactorily when placed into a capsule. Then

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To fabricate a new capsule, 2 motors will be randomly selected (that is, each pair of motors has the same chance of being selected).

A. The probability that both motors will operate satisfactorily in the capsule is

P=\dfrac{C^8_2}{C^{10}_2}=\dfrac{\frac{8!}{2!(8-2)!}}{\frac{10!}{2!(10-2)!}}=\dfrac{8!}{6!}\cdot \dfrac{8!}{10!}=7\cdot 8\cdot \dfrac{1}{9\cdot 10}=\dfrac{56}{90}=\dfrac{28}{45}

B. The probability that one motor will operate satisfactorily and the other will not is

P=\dfrac{C^8_1\cdot C^2_1}{c^{10}_2}=\dfrac{\frac{8!}{1!(8-1)!}\cdot\frac{2!}{1!\cdot (2-1)!}}{\frac{10!}{2!(10-2)!}}=8\cdot 2\cdot \dfrac{2!\cdot 8!}{10!}=16\cdot \dfrac{2}{9\cdot 10}=\dfrac{32}{90}=\dfrac{16}{45}

8 0
3 years ago
This is a trignometry question<br><br>hope u will do for me <br><br>i will mark brainliest..:)​
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Step-by-step explanation:

\cos^{4} x -  \sin^{4} x

= ( \cos^{2} x + \sin^{2} x)( \cos^{2} x -  \sin^{2} x)

= (1 -  \sin^{2} x  + \sin^{2} x)( 1 - \sin^{2} x -  \sin^{2} x)

= 1 - 2\sin^{2} x

Note: I replaced all cos^2x terms using the identity

\cos^{2} x  = 1 -  \sin^{2} x

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if she going to buy 10 its 10 time 16

and you get 160

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Step-by-step explanation:

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