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Marizza181 [45]
3 years ago
8

A NASA spacecraft measures the rate R of at which atmospheric pressure on Mars decreases with altitude. The result at a certain

altitude is: R = 0.0498 kPA*km^-1. Convert R to kJ*m^-4
Mathematics
1 answer:
AysviL [449]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

R = 0.0000498 \frac{KJ}{ m m^3}=0.0000498 \frac{KJ}{m^4}=4.98x10^{-5}\frac{KJ}{m^4}

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we have the following value:

R = 0.0498 \frac{Kpa}{Km}

We can convert this first to \frac{Kpa}{m} like this:

R=0.0498 \frac{Kpa}{Km} *\frac{1km}{1000m}=0.0000498 \frac{Kpa}{m}

Now we use the fact the the pressure is defined as P =\frac{F}{A}, whre P is the pressure, F the force and A the area, so then Kpa= \frac{KN}{m^2} and then we can replace this:

R=0.0000498 \frac{KN}{m^3}

Now from definition of work we know that W= Fd where W is the work, F the force and d the distance, so then is equivalent KN =\frac{KJ}{m}

And if we replace this into the equation we got:

R = 0.0000498 \frac{KJ}{ m m^3}=0.0000498 \frac{KJ}{m^4}=4.98x10^{-5}\frac{KJ}{m^4}

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Set up the integral that represents the arc length of the curve f(x) = ln(x) + 5 on [1, 3], and then use Simpson's Rule with n =
marta [7]

Answer:

The integral for the arc of length is:

\displaystyle\int_1^3\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}dx

By using Simpon’s rule we get: 1.5355453

And using technology we get:  2.3020

The approximation is about 33% smaller than the exact result.

Explanation:

The formula for the length of arc of the function f(x) in the interval [a,b] is:

\displaystyle\int_a^b \sqrt{1+[f'(x)]^2}dx

We need the derivative of the function:

f'(x)=\frac{1}{x}

And we need it squared:

[f'(x)]^2=\frac{1}{x^2}

Then the integral is:

\displaystyle\int_1^3\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}dx

Now, the Simposn’s rule with n=4 is:

\displaystyle\int_a^b g(x)}dx\approx\frac{\Delta x}{3}\left( g(a)+4g(a+\Delta x)+2g(a+2\Delta x) +4g(a+3\Delta x)+g(b) \right)

In this problem:

a=1,b=3,n=4, \displaystyle\Delta x=\frac{b-a}{n}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2},g(x)= \sqrt{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}

So, the Simposn’s rule formula becomes:

\displaystyle\int_1^3\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}dx\\\approx \frac{\frac{1}{3}}{3}\left( \sqrt{1+\frac{1}{1^2}} +4\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2}} +2\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{\left(1+\frac{2}{2}\right)^2}} +4\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{\left(1+\frac{3}{2}\right)^2}} +\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{3^2}} \right)

Then simplifying a bit:

\displaystyle\int_1^3\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}dx \approx \frac{1}{9}\left( \sqrt{1+\frac{1}{1^2}} +4\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)^2}} +2\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{\left(2\right)^2}} +4\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{\left(\frac{5}{2}\right)^2}} +\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{3^2}} \right)

Then we just do those computations and we finally get the approximation via Simposn's rule:

\displaystyle\int_1^3\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}dx\approx 1.5355453

While when we do the integral by using technology we get: 2.3020.

The approximation with Simpon’s rule is close but about 33% smaller:

\displaystyle\frac{2.3020-1.5355453}{2.3020}\cdot100\%\approx 33\%

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