Answer:
Jose ends up with more money with $59 more than Peter.
Step-by-step explanation:
To determine the amount they will have, you have to use the formula to calculate the future value:
FV=PV(1+r)^n
FV= future value
PV= present value
r= rate of interest
n= number of periods of time
-Peter:
FV=1,000*(1+0.04)^10
FV=1,000*1.48
FV=1,480
-Jose:
FV=900*(1+0.05)^11
FV=900*1.71
FV=1,539
Difference: $1,539-$1,480=$59
According to this, the answer is that Jose ends up with more money with $59 more than Peter.
Answer:
Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD): 1.6
Answer:
negative
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
y=1/4x-1.5
Step-by-step explanation:
So, because the line is parallel, the slope is the same. Then, to get the y-int, you do b=y-mx with the point, so the equation is b=-1-(1/4)(2), then you multiply to get b=-1-(0.5), so your y-int is -1.5.
(:P)
Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
These lines are parallel so they have no solutions
