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aleksandrvk [35]
2 years ago
7

Adrian wants his lawn to be mown 3 men apply for the task the first man can mow the lawn in 6 hours the second man can mow the l

awn in 4 hours the third man can mow the lawn in 3 hours how long will it take for the 3 men to complete the task if all of them mowed the lawn together
SHOW WORK PLS
Mathematics
1 answer:
matrenka [14]2 years ago
3 0

First man mows the lawn in 6 hours so he mows 1/6 of the lawn per hour

Second man mows at 1/4 lawn per hour

Third man mows at 1/3 lawn per hour

The total of the three: 1/6 + 1/4 + 1/3 = 2/12 + 3/12 + 4/12 = 9/12 = 3/4 of a lawn per hour.

1 lawn / 3/4 lawn per hour =  1 and 1/3 hours all together.

Answer: 1 and 1/3 hours

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Alekssandra [29.7K]
Take 2,720/34,000=.0806. This means that 2,720 is 8.06% of the original number. In order to find the percentage of decrease, you take 100%-8.06%, which equals 91.94%. Your answer is 91.94%.
7 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of the week, a particular stock sold for 293/8 per share. At the end of the same week it sold for 312/8. What w
Alex_Xolod [135]
Hello there!

You seem to have mistakenly typed your answer options wrong. 

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2 + ( 2/8 - 3/8 )
2 -1/8 

The correct answer is A. 1 7/8

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Good Luck :)
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7 0
2 years ago
The claim is that the proportion of adults who smoked a cigarette in the past week is less than 0.30​, and the sample statistics
IrinaK [193]

Answer: 0.84

Step-by-step explanation:

let p be the population proportion of adults who smoked a cigarette in the past week.

As per given , we have

H_a: p

Sample size : n= 1491

The sample proportion of adults smoked a cigarette= \hat{p}=\dfrac{x}{n}=\dfrac{462}{1491}=0.30985915493\approx0.31

The test statistic for proportion is given by :-

z=\dfrac{\hat{p}-p}{\sqrt{\dfrac{p(1-p)}{n}}}

Substitute all the values , we get

z=\dfrac{0.31-0.30}{\sqrt{\dfrac{0.30(1-0.30)}{1491}}}\\\\=\dfrac{0.01}{\sqrt{0.000141}}\\\\=\dfrac{0.01}{0.011874342087}=0.84261497731\approx0.84

Hence, the value of the test statistic = 0.84

6 0
3 years ago
Decide whether the Experiment is a Binomial Experiment. If it is not, explain why:
devlian [24]

Answer:

Experiment 1 and 3 are clear binomial experiments.

Experiment 2 needs tweaking to be a binomial experiment.

Check Explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

A binomial experiment is one in which

1) The probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.

2) It usually consists of a fixed number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure.

3) The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

Checking each of the experiments one at a time

- You observe the gender of the next 850 babies born at a local hospital. The random variable represents the number of boys.

For this experiment,

1) The probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials as it is a 50% chance that each child examined is a boy.

2) It consists of a fixed number of runs (850) with only two possible outcomes, success (if it's a boy) and failure (if it's a girl).

3) The probability of each trial being a boy is independent from all the other trials.

Hence, this experiment is a binomial experiment.

- You draw a marble 350 times from a bag with three colors of marbles. The random variable represents the color of marble that is drawn.

For this experiment,

1) If the marbles aren't being replaced after each draw, the probability of success, that is, picking a particular marble colour changes from trial to trial.

2) Although, it consist of a fixed number of runs/trials, there are more than two possible outcomes with 3 types of colours. Unless the experiment focuses on one colour and treats the other two colours as 'others', this condition too isn't satisfied.

3) Without replacement, the probability of success (picking a particular marble colour) in one trial isn't independent of the other trials.

This is not a binomial experiment as it doesn't satisfy all the required conditions to be one.

- Testing a cough suppressant using 820 people to determine if it is effective. The random variable represents the number of people who find the cough suppressant to be effective.

1) The probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials as it is the same chance that each person finds the cough suppressant to be effective.

2) It consists of a fixed number of runs (820) with only two possible outcomes, success (cough suppressant is effective) and failure (cough suppressant isn't effective).

3) The probability of each trial being a person that finds the cough suppressant to be effective, is independent from all the other trials.

Hence, this experiment is a binomial experiment.

Hope this Helps!!!

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HURRY! this is financial algebra
Zina [86]

Answer:

6 years

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple interest= P.R.T

I = $1300

P = 18000 deposit

Rate = 1.19%

T = ?

Putting into the formula we have

1300 = 18000x1.19/100xT

1300 = 18000x0.0119xT

1300 = 214.2T

Divide through to get T

T = 1300/214.2

= 6.069

So when we approximate T = 6 years

It would take 6 years to make $1300 in interest

7 0
3 years ago
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