Hope this helps and hope you can read it, if not let me know :)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I think x=-2
Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
Answer:
who is that? Maybe i know this person...
Step-by-step explanation:
You end up at the point (5, 5).
