Answer:
83,900 J
Explanation:
First, find the acceleration:
F = ma
1150 N = (1600 kg) a
a = 0.719 m/s²
Now find the final velocity.
Given:
Δx = 45.8 m
v₀ = 6.25 m/s
a = 0.719 m/s²
Find: v
v² = v₀² + 2aΔx
v² = (6.25 m/s)² + 2 (0.719 m/s²) (45.8 m)
v = 10.2 m/s
Now find the final KE:
KE = ½ mv²
KE = ½ (1600 kg) (10.2 m/s)²
KE = 83,920 J
Rounded to three significant figures, the final kinetic energy is 83,900 J.
Answer: the constant angular velocity of the arms is 86.1883 rad/sec
Explanation:
First we calculate the linear velocity of the single sprinkler;
Area of the nozzle = π/4 × d²
given that d = 8mm = 8 × 10⁻³
Area of the nozzle = π/4 × (8 × 10⁻³)²
A = 5.024 × 10⁻⁵ m²
Now total discharge is dived into 4 jets so discharge for single jet will be;
Q_single = Q / n = 0.006 / 4 = 1.5 × 10⁻³ m³/sec
So using continuity equation ;
Q_single = A × V_single
V_single = Q_single/A
we substitute
V_single = (1.5 × 10⁻³) / (5.024 × 10⁻⁵)
V_single = 29.8566 m/s
Now resolving the forces as shown in the second image,
Vt = Vcos30°
Vt = 29.8566 × cos30°
Vt = 25.8565 m/s
Finally we calculate the angular velocity;
Vt = rω
ω_single = Vt / r
from the given diagram, radius is 300mm = 0.3m
so we substitute
ω_single = 25.8565 / 0.3
ω_single = 86.1883 rad/sec
Therefore the constant angular velocity of the arms is 86.1883 rad/sec
Answer:

at t = 0.001 we have

at t = 0.01

at t = infinity

Explanation:
As we know that they are in series so the voltage across all three will be sum of all individual voltages
so it is given as

now we will have

now we have

So we will have

at t = 0 we have
q = 0

also we know that
at t = 0 i = 0




so we have

at t = 0.001 we have

at t = 0.01

at t = infinity

Answer:
The current is
The direction is anti-clockwise
Explanation:
The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image
From the question we are told that
the length of the conducting rod is 
The resistance is 
The magnetic field is 
The speed of the rod is 
The emf induced is
substituting values we have


From ohm law the induced current would be

substituting values we have

The direction anticlockwise this because according to lenze law the current due to change in magnetic field will act in the opposite direction of the force causing the magnetic field to change