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3 years ago

How many whole numbers are between 1 and 50 that are divisible by 2?

Mathematics

2 answers:

kupik [55]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The first number in the range 1 - 50 that is divisible by 2 is 2 itself. Then 4, 6, 8, ....

Here's one way to think and count:

$2 \rightarrow 1\\4 \rightarrow 2\\6 \rightarrow 3\\8 \rightarrow 4\\\vdots\\50\rightarrow 25$

In the table, the number on the right is <u>half</u> the number on the left. The numbers on the right are just counting numbers (natural numbers), so there are 25 even numbers between 1 and 50.

vichka [17]3 years ago

5 0

This question is ambiguous.
If you mean between 1 and 50 inclusive (including 1 and 50) the answer is 50/2 = 25
If you mean strictly between 1 and 50 (excluding 1 and 50) then the answer is 24
ie 2, 4, 6, 8, ... 44, 46, 48 and dividing each term by two we see 1, 2, 3, ... 22, 23, 24

To avoid this the question should specify “inclusive” or “exclusive”

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1) If a die is rolled once, determine the probability of rolling a 4: Rolling a 4 is an event with 1 favorable outcome (a roll of 4) and the total number of possible outcomes is 6 (a roll of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6). Thus, the probability of rolling a 4 is $\frac{1}{6}$ .

If a die is rolled once, determine the probability of rolling at least a 4: Rolling at least 4 is an event with 3 favorable outcomes (a roll of 4, 5, or 6) and the total number of possible outcomes is again 6. Thus, the probability of rolling at least a 4 is $\frac{3}{6}$ = $\frac{1}{2}$ .

<h3>Here are two more examples: </h3>

If a coin is flipped twice, determine the probability that it will land heads both times:

Favorable outcomes: 1 -- HH

Possible outcomes: 4 -- HH, HT, TH, TT

Thus, the probability that the coin will land heads both times is $\frac{1}{4}$ .

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Favorable outcomes: 3 (3 white socks)

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