Answer:
44.8
Step-by-step explanation:
multiple 32 by 1.4
Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
Lines have angles that are equal to 180. Therefore, because we already have 140 of the 180 necessary, we can subtract 140 from 180 to get 40. 40 divided by 5 is 8.
Hope that this helps!
Answer:
You multiply 5 by 1/5 to get 1. So with 2x, you multiply by 1/(2x) to get 1. That's about all you know, since we only know that x is positive.
Step-by-step explanation:
1- B
2- C
3- B
4- D
5- D
6- C
7- B
8- C
9- C
10- C
Hope I helped you!!
I really think that I got them all right.. PLEASE tell me if I got any wrong so that I can change them :) Its been a while since I've done this... XD
Step-by-step explanation:
S = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 7, 8 }
n ( S ) = 8
Let A be the event of getting 4,
A = { 4 }
n ( A ) = 1
P ( A )
= n ( A ) / n ( S )
= 1 / 8
Therefore, the probability of spinning a 4 is 1 / 8.
S = { A, B, A, C, A, B }
n ( S ) = 6
Let Y be the event of getting C,
Y = { C }
n ( Y ) = 1
P ( Y )
= n ( Y ) / n ( S )
= 1 / 6
Therefore, the probability of spinning a C is 1 / 6.
