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Elanso [62]
2 years ago
7

Salary paid ra10,000 and still due rs2000 ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
lyudmila [28]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

20bdnxjxkdjdnddwwuwuwjwjjw

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a box shaped biscuits contain 15 squares, 17 triangles, 6 rectangles, 4 diamonds and 8 hexagons. If a biscuit is chosen at rando
Triss [41]
Add the numbers up to get the total number of biscuits, which will be 50. Then, make a fraction using the squares, which will be 15/50. Simplify by 5. The answer will be 3/10. 
I hope this helped!
3 0
3 years ago
PLEASE ANSWER!!!!! I WILL MARK YOU AS BRAINLIEST!!!!! IT IS HIGHLY APPRECIATED!!! :)
kkurt [141]

Answer:

A number less than 4 was rolled 18 times.

The number cube was rolled 50 times. The relative frequency of rolling a number less than 4 is 36%.

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3 years ago
Jamar works at Jay's Jeweler. He earns $385 a week plus commission. Last week his sales totaled $1,680. If his commission is 25%
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$805

25% of $1,680 is $420 .
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4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In the given diagram , TY is a tangent to the circle TVS . If <SVT = 48° and |VS| = |ST| . What is < VTY.​
ycow [4]

Answer:

  • 84°

Step-by-step explanation:

∠VTY is the tangent chord angle

  • Tangent chord angle is the half of the intercepted arc

∠TSV is the inscribed angle.

  • Inscribed angle is the half of the intercepted arc

<u>Since both of the mentioned angles refer to same arc, they are of same value.</u>

  • ∠VTY = ∠TSV

ΔTVS is isosceles as VS = ST, therefore the opposite angles are same.

  • m∠T = m∠V = 48°

<u>The measure of angle S</u>

  • m∠S = 180° - 2*48° = 84°

<u>The required angle</u>

  • m∠VTY = 84°
4 0
3 years ago
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A hotel claims that 8585​% of its customers are very satisfied with its service. complete parts a through d below based on a ran
jek_recluse [69]
We can solve this problem using the binomial distribution. A binomial distribution<span> can be thought of as a success or failure outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times. 
</span>Probability function of binomial distribution has the following form:
P= \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} p^k(1-p)^{n-k}
p represents the probability of each choice we want. k is the number of choices we want and n is the total number of choices.
In our case p=0.85, k=5 and n=6. 
We can now calculate the answer:
P= \frac{6!}{5!(6-5)!} 0.85^5(1-0.85)^{6-5}=0.39
The probability is 39%.
.
7 0
3 years ago
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