Answer:
<u>Question 1</u>
The function 
is one-to-one, so it does have an inverse.
The inverse of +6 is -6, so 
Therefore, g(x) is the inverse of f(x).
<u>Question 2</u>
The function 
is one-to-one, so it does have an inverse.
To find the inverse, replace f(x) with y:
Rearrange the equation to make x the subject:
Replace x with 
and y with x:
Therefore, g(x) is the inverse of f(x).
3 times as much as 40
40 x 3
40 + 40 + 40
40
40
40
----
120
120 is the answer
Answer:
My net wroth would have changed by $800
Step-by-step explanation:
Because $3,100 - $2,300 = $800
That is where the line crosses the x axis or where y=0
0=-16x^2+22x+3
we gon do grouping
ac method
-16 times 3=-48
what 2 numbers multiply to get -48 and add to get 22
-2 and 24
0=-16x^2-2x+24x+3
group
0=(-16x^2-2x)+(24x+3)
undistribute
0=-2x(8x+1)+3(8x+1)
undistribute
0=(8x+1)(-2x+3)
set eaqual to 0
8x+1=0
8x=-1
x=-1/8
-2x+3=0
3=2x
3/2=x
x intercepts ate x=-1/8 and x=3/2
So Volume of cylinder is pi*r^2*h = 1,000
Then lightest one means you have the smallest surface area. Which is one base and then the area of the surface. SA = pi*r^2 + 2pi*r*h
So now you have 2 equations, so:
h = 1,000/(pi*r^2)
So then SA = pi*r^2 + 2pi*r*(1,000/(pi*r^2) = pi*r^2 + 2,000/r
Derivative of SA is then 2pi*r -2,000/r^2. Set to 0
2pi*r-2,000/r^2 =0 --> 2pi*r^3 = 2,000 --> r^3 = 1,000/pi --> r = 10/pi^(1/3)
Now go back to the volume function: pi*r^2*h =1,000 --> 1,000/(pi*100/pi^(2/3)) = h
<span>h = 10 / pi^(1/3)</span>
