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levacccp [35]
3 years ago
15

Is this a function???????

Mathematics
2 answers:
Neko [114]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

it's not function if the circle is way high then that's function

hope it can help you:)

sergij07 [2.7K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: No is not a function

Step-by-step explanation: A really good example is this one

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PLEASE EXPLAIN!
stepladder [879]

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

5(2)(3)-2(2)+13+7(2)-6(2)(3)-4(2)+(2)(3)

30-4+13+14-36-8+6

15

6 0
3 years ago
What information does the point-slope form of a linear equation reveal about a line?
Rudik [331]
It reveals the slope and a single point on the line
3 0
3 years ago
Du/dr=(1+sqrt(r))/(1+sqrt(u))_
Maslowich
Solution is supposed to be as follows
<span>u+<span>2 / 3</span><span> u<span>^3/2</span></span>
=r+<span>2 / 3</span><span> r^<span>3/2</span></span> + <span>c</span></span>
4 0
3 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
Cheryl uses the graph below to convert x, a measurement give to y, the equivalent measurement in another unit. Which of the foll
Salsk061 [2.6K]
Where's the graph? If you can give me the graph then I'd be able to answer for you.
4 0
3 years ago
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