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garik1379 [7]
2 years ago
9

Please help I really need help.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ipatiy [6.2K]2 years ago
8 0
U need a protractor
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The formula to convert Celsius to Fahrenheit is FC +32. Convert 87°F to
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

31°

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius is C= (F-32) * 5/9

So first do parenthesis 87-32= 55

Next multiply that number by 5/9 which is 30.55555555

Then round your answer = 31°

4 0
2 years ago
Kendra sold 200 shares through her broker on June 8. The price per share was $22.10. The broker charged her a 0.5% commission on
KiRa [710]

<u><em>Answer:</em></u>

A. $4397.9

<u><em>Explanation:</em></u>

We are given that Kendra sold 200 shares and that the price per share was $22.1

<u>This means that:</u>

Total value = 200 * 22.1 = $4420

Now, we know that the broker charged 0.5% commission on the total value

<u>This means that:</u>

Broker's charge = 0.5% * 4420 = 0.005 * 4420 = $22.1

<u>Therefore,</u>

Kendra's return = Total value - broker's charge

Kendra's return = 4420 - 22.1 = $4397.9

Hope this helps :)

7 0
3 years ago
Let the probability of success on a Bernoulli trial be 0.26. a. In five Bernoulli trials, what is the probability that there wil
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

0.3898 = 38.98% probability that there will be 4 failures

Step-by-step explanation:

A sequence of Bernoulli trials forms the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

Let the probability of success on a Bernoulli trial be 0.26.

This means that p = 0.26

a. In five Bernoulli trials, what is the probability that there will be 4 failures?

Five trials means that n = 5

4 failures, so 1 success, and we have to find P(X = 1).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.26)^{1}.(0.74)^{4} = 0.3898

0.3898 = 38.98% probability that there will be 4 failures

4 0
3 years ago
-3 divided by 1/6 = <br> 1. 18<br> 2. -18<br> 3. -2<br> 4. -1/2
dedylja [7]

Answer:

-18

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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Why is 1 + (−5) equal to −4? PLEASE HELP
AfilCa [17]

Answer:

Since the -5 is a bigger number than 1 you would keep the negative and carry it to the -4.

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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