Answer:
Because f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x, f and g <u>are </u> inverse functions.
Step-by-step explanation:
f(g(x)) = f(
) = 
g(f(x)) = g
Answer:
f = - 
Step-by-step explanation:
Given f varies directly with m then the equation relating them is
f = km ← k is the constant of variation
To find k use the condition f = - 19 when m = 14
- 19 = 14k ( divide both sides by 14 )
-
= k
f = -
m ← equation of variation
When m = 2 , then
f = -
× 2 = - 
This would not be binomial; the probabilities are not independent, since the balls are drawn without replacement.
Answer: The second number is 26
Step-by-step explanation:
To solve this problem you must apply the proccedure shown below:
1. Let's call:
x: The first even number.
x+2: the second consecutive even number.
x+4: the third consecutive even number.
2. So, you know that the sum ot the 3 consecutive numbers is 78, therefore, you must add them, as you can see below:

3. Substitute the value obtain into x+2. Therefore, the second number is:
