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2 years ago

1mm is equal to .1 what

Physics

1 answer:

bulgar [2K]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

When you have to do an English-Metric (SI) length conversion, and you already know the English units of length (miles, yards, feet, inches, etc.), all you need to remember is one simple relationship, and you can readily convert any length in the SI system, to the equivalent length in the other.

1 foot (ft) = 0.3048 meters (m)

BIn this case you need your answer in inches. You (hopefully) know there are 12 inches in a foot, so you just do the following:

1 inch (in) = 1/12 ft = 0.3048/12 m = 0.0254 m

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Substitution solve for x & y<br>-4x - 2y equals 14<br>-10x+7y=-25

den301095 [7]

Answer:

-4×-2y=14 (1)

-10×+7y=-25 (2)

multiplying eq 1 by 7 and eq 2 by 2 and add eq. 1 and 2

-28×-14y=98

-20×+14y=-50

___________

-28×=48

×=48/-28

×=-12/7

now

-4×-2y=14

-4*-12/7-2y=14

48/7-2y=14

-2y=14-48/7

-2y=(98-48)/7

-2y=50/7

y=-50/14

y=-25/7

8 0

3 years ago

A toy train engine rests motionless on a track. One student begins pushing the engine to the right with a force of 2 newtons. At

Svetradugi [14.3K]

I think it’s B

Hope it helps

8 0

3 years ago

An astronaut sitting on the launch pad on Earth's surface is 6,400 kilometers from Earth's center and weighs 400 newtons. Calcul

PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

weight at height = 100 N .

Explanation:

The problem relates to variation of weight due to change in height .

Let g₀ and g₁ be acceleration due to gravity , m is mass of the object .

At the surface :

Applying Newton's law of gravitation

mg₀ = G Mm / R²

At height h from centre

mg₁ = G Mm /h²

Given mg₀ = 400 N

400 = G Mm / R²

400 = G Mm / (6400 x 10³ )²

G Mm = 400 x (6400 x 10³ )²

At height h from centre

mg₁ = 400 x (6400 x 10³ )²/ ( 2 x 6400 x 10³)²

= 400 / 4

= 100 N .

weight at height = 100 N

5 0

3 years ago

In a series lrc circuit, the frequency at which the circuit is at resonance is f0. If you double the resistance, the inductance,

taurus [48]

When you double capacitance and inductance, the new resonance frequency becomes f/2.

Resonance frequency:

The resonance frequency of RLC series circuit, is the frequency at which the capacity reactance is equal to inductive reactance.

It can also be defined as the natural frequency of an object where it tends to vibrate at a higher amplitude.

Xc = Xl

which gives the value for resonance frequency:

$f = \frac{1}{2\pi \sqrt{LC} }$

where;

f is the resonance frequency

L is the inductance

C is the capacitance

When you double capacitance and inductance, the new resonance frequency becomes;

$f' = \frac{1}{2\pi \sqrt{2L2C} }$

$f' = \frac{1}{2\pi \sqrt{4LC} }$

$f' = \frac{1}{\pi \sqrt{LC} }\frac{1}{2}$

$f' = \frac{1}{2} f$

Thus from above,

When you double capacitance and inductance, the new resonance frequency becomes f/2.

Learn more about resonance frequency here:

<u>brainly.com/question/13040523</u>

#SPJ4

6 0

2 years ago

A stationary 15 kg object is located in a table near the surface of the earth. The coefficient of static friction between the su

madreJ [45]

maximum static friction acting on the object will be

$F_s = \mu_s mg$

plug in all values

$F_s = 0.40 \times 15 \times 9.8 = 58.8 N$

So here it means that if applied force is less than or equal to 58.8 N then the object will remain stationary as friction can balance the external force upto this limit of external force

So here it is given that applied force is 20 N

so here object will not move due to this force and it will remain at rest always

due to this applied force

6 0

2 years ago