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nata0808 [166]
2 years ago
12

Where does the minute hand point at ten past seven

Mathematics
2 answers:
o-na [289]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The minute hand would point to the 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

You count the numbers on the clock by 5's. So, when the minute hand is on 1, it's 5 after, when it hits 2, it will be 10 after.

Ronch [10]2 years ago
5 0
At 10 minutes past 7’o clock the minute hand will be on the number 2.
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You spin each spinner once. You get $50 if you spin a 2 and a vowel. You get $25 if you spin a 2 and a consonant. You get $5 if
Tom [10]

The expected value of the game is $8.75.

----------------------

  • The expected value is the <u>sum of each outcome multiplied by it's probability</u>.
  • A probability is the <u>number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes</u>.

  • The probability of spinning a 2 and a vowel is: \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{2}{8} = \frac{2}{32}.
  • Thus, \frac{2}{32} probability of getting $50.

  • The probability of spinning 2 and a consonant is: \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{6}{8} = \frac{6}{32}
  • Thus, \frac{6}{32} probability of getting $25.

  • The probability of spinning 1 and a vowel is: \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{2}{8} = \frac{6}{32}.
  • Thus, \frac{6}{32} probability of getting $5.

  • 32 - (6 + 6 + 2) = 18, thus, \frac{18}{32} probability of earning $0.

The expected value is:

E = \frac{2}{32}(50) + \frac{6}{32}(25) + \frac{6}{32}(5) + \frac{18}{32}(0)

E = \frac{100 + 150 + 30}{32}

E = \frac{280}{32}

E = 8.75

The expected value of this game is of $8.75.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24961584

8 0
2 years ago
Bridget is allowed to play online games for 75/100 of an hour each day right this fraction as a decimal
Monica [59]
The answer is 0.75 good luck !
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A new tv show will air live at 8pm Eastern Standard Time.
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

7:00pm

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
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How do you solve for y in the equation: <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bx%7D%7By%7D%20%3Dy-6" id="TexFormula1" title
kozerog [31]

No it isn't.

Explanation:

x/y * y = (y-6) * y

x = y^2 - 6y

A function gives just one y for every x

In this case there will always be 2 y's for every x

Example:

y can be

y = 6

or

y =−6

(0,-6) & (0,6)

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following best shows two elements combining to form a compound!? Explain...
ioda

Answer:

C because elements are form by atoms and when we study about atom we draw atom like circle

so, that's why I think C is correct

 

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
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