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nata0808 [166]
3 years ago
12

Where does the minute hand point at ten past seven

Mathematics
2 answers:
o-na [289]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The minute hand would point to the 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

You count the numbers on the clock by 5's. So, when the minute hand is on 1, it's 5 after, when it hits 2, it will be 10 after.

Ronch [10]3 years ago
5 0
At 10 minutes past 7’o clock the minute hand will be on the number 2.
You might be interested in
A ladder is placed 30 inches from a wall. It touches the wall at a height of 50 inches from the ground.
tankabanditka [31]
To find the length of the ladder, you need to do Pythagorean theorem.
50^2 + 30^2 = x^2
2500 + 900 = x^2
x^2 =3400
x= square root of 3400
58.31 OR 10 root34

To find the angle:
tan theta = opposite/adjacent
50/30 = 5/3
theta = tan inverse of 5/3
= 59.04


8 0
4 years ago
Suppose that a computer software company has 30
LekaFEV [45]

Answer: \dfrac{30!}{6!(24)!}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : The total number of programmers in the company = 30

The company wants to select a group of 6 programmers to work on a  particular project.

Since the order of selecting them does not matters , therefore we use combinations.

The number of combinations of r things taken from n things is given by :-

^nC_r=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

here, n= 30 and r= 6

So the number of different ways to form they could select a group of 6 would be ^{30}C_{6}=\dfrac{30!}{6!(30-6)!}

=\dfrac{30!}{6!(24)!}\\\\=\dfrac{30\times29\times28\times27\times26\times25\times24!}{(720)24!}=593775

i.e. Total ways =593775

In terms of factorials , the number of total ways to form they could select a group of 6 is \dfrac{30!}{6!(24)!} .

7 0
3 years ago
True or false <br> all prime numbers are odd <br> i said false is that correct
Mumz [18]
False

2 is the only even prime number, the rest of the prime numbers are odd.
8 0
4 years ago
From Euler’s relation eiθ = cosθ + isinθ,
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

(a) The graphic representation is in the attached figure.

(b) \cos(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} + e^{-i\theta}}{2}.

(c) \sin(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} - e^{-i\theta}}{2i}.

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) Given a complex number e^{i\theta} we know, from Euler's formula that e^{i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta). So, it is not difficult to notice that

|e^{i\theta}|^2 = \cos^2(\theta)+\sin^2(\theta) =1

so it is on the unit circumference. Also, notice that the Cartesian representation of the complex number is (\cos(\theta), \sin(\theta)).

Now,

e^{-i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(-\theta) = \cos(\theta)-i\sin(\theta).

Notice that e^{-i\theta} has the same modulus that e^{i\theta}, so it is on the unit circumference. Beside, its Cartesian representation is (\cos(\theta), -\sin(\theta)).

So, the points (\cos(\theta), \sin(\theta)) and (\cos(\theta), -\sin(\theta)) are symmetric with respect to the X-axis. All this can be checked in the attached figure.

(b) Notice that

e^{i\theta} + e^{-i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta) + \cos(\theta)-i\sin(\theta) = 2\cos(\theta)

Then,

\cos(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} + e^{-i\theta}}{2}.

(c) Notice that

e^{i\theta} - e^{-i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta) - \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta) = 2i\sin(\theta)

Then,

\sin(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} - e^{-i\theta}}{2i}.

7 0
3 years ago
.............................
Nonamiya [84]

2/3 <=======3

i think,,,, if not sorry i suck at math

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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