Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a controllable variance. Therefore, the option B holds true.
<h3>What is the significance of controllable variance?</h3>
Controllable variance can be referred to or considered as a variance that computes the difference between the actual quantity and the budgeted quantity sold or consumed by a firm in an economy. It can never be deficit, and is always in surplus of the budgeted amounts.
Therefore, the option B holds true and states regarding the significance of controllable variance.
Learn more about controllable variance here:
brainly.com/question/13985361
#SPJ4
The question seems to be incomplete. It has been added below for better reference.
Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a:
a. quantity variance
b. controllable variance
c. volume variance
d. rate variance
Answer: b. reduce taxes and cut back on some social programs
Explanation:
When the Economy is not doing well, Social programs are usually targeted as they usually take a lot of money from the Government's coffers.
It is also a generally held view that reducing taxes as a Fiscal policy can help stimulate the Economy by leaving the public with more funds to invest in and spend on the Economy.
The Government of Ruritania is therefore most likely to combine reducing Social programs as well as reducing taxes. This will have the effect of leaving the Government with some money as it loses revenue from taxes whilst also enabling the public to have more money to invest and to spend which will then lead to Economic growth.
Answer:
$5,220
Explanation:
The computation of the bad debt expense for the period end adjustment is shown below:
= Allowance of bad debts + credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
where,
Allowance of bad debts = 2% × $249,000 = $4,980
And, the credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $240
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $4,980 + $240
= $5,220
The journal entry is shown below:
Bad debt expense A/c Dr $5,220
To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $5,220
(Being bad debt is recorded)
Answer:
C.$46,730
Explanation:
Nadal Corporation manufactures custom molds for use in the extrusion industry. Based on the data available we first see the formula to calculate the total manufacturing cost of the job 532.
In general, sum of all the cost directly or indirectly included in the manufacturing cost. Therefore the formula is as below
Total Manufacturing Cost = Direct Labor Cost + Direct Materials Cost + Manufacturing Overhead Cost.
Direct labor cost $36,800
Direct materials used $5,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate based on machine hours $17 which is = $17 x 290 hours
Manufacturing cots= 4930$
Total Manufacturing Cost = 36800 + 5000 + 4930
Total Manufacturing Cost = 46,730$
Answer:
Jorge is not risk-averse
Explanation:
Risk averse means to reluctant to take risk
Since theres a 80% chance that Jorge will get laid off and end up with a job that will pay him $10000 less is very risky instead where he'll earn $30000 where the chance is 20% that he'll get the job.