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Debora [2.8K]
3 years ago
5

A speeding motorist traveling down a straight highway at 100 km/h passes a parked police car. It takes the police constable 1.0

s to take a radar reading and to start up his car. The police vehicle accelerates from rest at 2 m/s2 and finally catches up with the speeder. a) How much time has elapsed when the two cars meet?
Physics
1 answer:
Lubov Fominskaja [6]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

t = 7.5 s

Explanation:

The distance traveled by the car at the time of meeting of the two cars must be the same. First, we calculate the distance traveled by the police car. For that we use 2nd equation of motion. Here, we take the time when police car starts to be reference. So,

s₁ = Vi t + (0.5)gt²

where,

s₁ = distance traveled by police car

Vi = Initial Velocity = 0 m/s

t = time taken

Therefore,

s₁ = (0 m/s)(t) + (0.5)(9.8 m/s²)t²

s₁ = 4.9 t²

Now, we calculate the distance traveled by the car. For constant speed and time to be 1 second more than the police car time, due to car starting time, we get:

s₂ = Vt = V(t + 1)

where,

s₂ = distance traveled by car

V = Velocity of car = (100 km/h)(1000 m/1 km)(1 h/ 3600 s) = 27.78 m/s

Therefore,

s₂ = 27.78 t + 27.78

Now, we know that at the time of meeting:

s₁ = s₂

4.9 t² = 27.78 t + 27.78

4.9 t² - 270.78 t - 27.78 = 0

solving the equation and choosing the positive root:

t = 6.5 s

since, we want to know the time from the moment car crossed police car. Therefore, we add 1 second of starting time in this.

t = 6.5 s + 1 s

<u>t = 7.5 s</u>

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An electron moves at 0.130 c as shown in the figure (Figure 1). There are points: A, B, C, and D 2.10 μm from the electron.
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Hi there!

We can use Biot-Savart's Law for a moving particle:
B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v}\times \vec{r}}{r^2 }

B = Magnetic field strength (T)
v = velocity of electron (0.130c = 3.9 × 10⁷ m/s)

q = charge of particle (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

r = distance from particle (2.10 μm)

There is a cross product between the velocity vector and the radius vector (not a quantity, but specifies a direction). We can write this as:

B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }

Where 'θ' is the angle between the velocity and radius vectors.

a)
To find the angle between the velocity and radius vector, we find the complementary angle:

θ = 90° - 60° = 30°

Plugging 'θ' into the equation along with our other values:

B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }\\\\B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(30)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 }

B = \boxed{7.07 *10^{-10} T}

b)
Repeat the same process. The angle between the velocity and radius vector is 150°, and its sine value is the same as that of sin(30°). So, the particle's produced field will be the same as that of part A.

c)

In this instance, the radius vector and the velocity vector are perpendicular so

'θ' = 90°.

B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(90)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 } = \boxed{1.415 * 10^{-9}T}

d)
This point is ALONG the velocity vector, so there is no magnetic field produced at this point.

Aka, the radius and velocity vectors are parallel, and since sin(0) = 0, there is no magnetic field at this point.

\boxed{B = 0 T}

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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