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Bas_tet [7]
2 years ago
9

Hey<3 If you help you’re amazing if you don’t you’re awesome.

Mathematics
1 answer:
OleMash [197]2 years ago
4 0
<h3>Answer:  576 </h3>

============================================================

Check out the diagram below.

I've split the figure into 3 separate blocks. We calculate the volume of each block, then add up those volumes to get the final answer.

  • Block A = largest block on the left
  • Block B = middle block
  • Block C = smallest block on the right

So,

  • volume of block A = length*width*height = 6*6*8 = 288 ft^3
  • volume of block B = length*width*height = 6*6*5 = 180 ft^3
  • volume of block C = length*width*height = 6*6*3 = 108 ft^3

Therefore, the total volume we're working with is:

A+B+C = 288+180+108 = 576 cubic feet

The "cubic feet" or "ft^3" portion is already taken care of by your teacher, so you just need to type in the number itself.

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Choose the best graph that represents the following systems of linear inequality.
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

using the power of elemination,looking at the first equation,we singled out the top 2, now looking at the 2nd equation, we see the y intercept is 2 meaning it has to be graph c

7 0
2 years ago
Help? Need ASAP 736383727
STALIN [3.7K]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply the numbers on the top and left, like 6x3=18 units. however, since its half of 18 units, it will be 9

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
From experience, it is known that on average 10% of welds performed by a particular welder are defective. if this welder is requ
bulgar [2K]
Binomial distribution can be used because the situation satisfies all the following conditions:1. Number of trials is known and remains constant (n)2. Each trial is Bernoulli (i.e. exactly two possible outcomes) (success/failure)3. Probability is known and remains constant throughout the trials (p)4. All trials are random and independent of the othersThe number of successes, x, is then given byP(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}whereC(n,x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}
Here we're given
p=0.10  [ success = defective ]
n=3

(a) x=0
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
=C(3,0)0.1^0(1-0.1)^{3-0}
=1(1)(0.729)
=0.729

(b) x=2
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
=C(3,2)0.1^2(1-0.1)^{3-2}
=3(0.01)(0.9)
=0.027

(c) x &ge; 2
P(x)=\sum_{x=2}^3C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
=P(2)+P(3)
=C(n,2)p^2(1-p)^{n-2}+C(n,3)p^3(1-p)^{n-3}
=C(3,2)0.1^2(1-0.1)^{3-2}+C(3,3)0.1^3(1-0.1)^{3-3}
=3(0.01)(0.9)+1(0.001)1
=0.027+0.001
=0.028


8 0
3 years ago
Will make brainliest if answer correctly
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
I don’t understand how to factor trinomials
gayaneshka [121]
When the X term is one, and doesn't have a leading coefficient, then you can factor it using the box and diamond method. look up videos on Khan Academy of the box and diamond method for solving trinomials. For number 9, you have a difference of squares. That means you can factor to just 2 terms. (x+4)(x-4) this works because 16 has an easy square root, and the sign in between is a negative(difference)
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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