All categories

3 years ago

Kolby decided he wanted to go to the amusement park. The amusement park charges $8.00 for entry and $1.40 for each ride.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Part A:

1.40x+8.00=C

Part B:

1.40x+8=26

-8 -8

1.40x=18

/1.40 /1.40

x=11 total rides

Step-by-step explanation:

An expression to represent this would be 1.40x+8.00=C (C is total cost).

If you had $26.00 you would first spend $8.00 on the entry leaving you with $18.00. Then you would divide the $18 by $1.40 for each ride to get 12.8... It doesn't make sense to go on a fraction of a ride so you just round down to 11 rides

You might be interested in

Question 4 of 5

9966 [12]

Answer: The graph crosses the x-axis at x = 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

The root has a multiplicity of 3, meaning that it crosses the x axis at x=2.

3 0

2 years ago

Thirteen is at least the difference of a number v and 1.

Mariulka [41]

13≥v-1 is the formula

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Answer the picture please

Irina18 [472]

Answer:

42 miles ≈ 68 km

35 km ≈ 22 miles

150 miles ≈ 252 km

Step-by-step explanation:

1 mile ≈ 1.6 km - just look at the picture

8 0

3 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

3 years ago

Which table represents a quadratic function?

Assoli18 [71]

Its the third option, just took the quiz

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers