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mina [271]
3 years ago
7

A set of four stars form the shape of a rectangle in space. The length of the rectangle is approximately 6,750,000,000 miles, wh

ile the width of the rectangle is approximately 36,100,000 miles. What is the approximate area of the rectangle?
Mathematics
1 answer:
maksim [4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

2.43675e+17

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry used calculator.

but still hope that this is correct.

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Which graph represents a linear function? (4 points)
leonid [27]

Answer:

On the surface, it seems easy. Can you think of the integers for x, y, and z so that x³+y³+z³=8? Sure. One answer is x = 1, y = -1, and z = 2. But what about the integers for x, y, and z so that x³+y³+z³=42?

That turned out to be much harder—as in, no one was able to solve for those integers for 65 years until a supercomputer finally came up with the solution to 42. (For the record: x = -80538738812075974, y = 80435758145817515, and z = 12602123297335631. Obviously.)

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
what is -8x-9=-21, can someone work out the problem and show me what they did to get there answer so i can understand it?
SashulF [63]

- 8x - 9 = - 21

Add 9 to both sides:

- 8x = - 12

Divide both sides by - 8:

x = -12/-8

x = -3/-2

x = 3/2 OR 1.5

Hope this answer helps :)

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP!!! I REWARD BRAINLIEST! I NEED HELP ASAP!
zimovet [89]

Answer:

1?

Step-by-step explanation:

I think its one...

6 0
3 years ago
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How do you know how many places are in fifty million without writing the number in standard form
wolverine [178]
We know that 1 million has 6 zeros. This means 1 million has 7 place values: one for the 1 and 6 for the zeros.

50 has 1 more place value than one, so 50 million has 1 more place value than 1 million.

So, 50 million has 8 place values.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the probability of rolling a four then a three
spayn [35]

Answer:

\frac{1}{36}

Step-by-step explanation:

Total possibilities when we a roll a die at a time are 6

given we should have four for first time and then three

let us assume we rolled the dice we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 4 is

PROBABILITY=\frac{\textrm{FAVOURABLE CHANCES}}{\textrm{TOTAL CHANCES}}

Favourable chances=1

Total chances=6

Probability=\frac{1}{6}

the prabability to get 4 in first roll is \frac{1}{6}.

let us assume we rolled the dice for second time again we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 3 is

Favourable chances=1

total chances=6

probability=\frac{1}{6}

the probability to get 3 in second roll irrespective of first one is \frac{1}{6}

the probability to get 4 in first time and then 3 is

The probability to occur both events at a time is multiplication of individual probabilities

So,

probablility to get 4 in first roll=\frac{1}{6}

probability to get 3 in second roll=\frac{1}{6}

probability to occur both at a same time is =\frac{1}{6} \times\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{36}

6 0
3 years ago
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