Answer:
Option A is correct.
(The faster object encounters more resistance)
Explanation:
Option A is correct. (The faster object encounters more resistance)
Air resistance depends on various factors:
- Speed of the object
- Cross-sectional area of the object
- Shape of the object
Formula:
As the speed of the object increases the amount of Air resistance/drag increases on the object, as the above formula shows direct relation between Air resistance/drag and velocity i.e F ∝ v^2.
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.
We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.
Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed = ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .
Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed = 2ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/2ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.
So far so good. We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed. Perfect !
At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:
They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when
(a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)
AND
the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.
Wait ! Ignore all of that. I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too. It may be simpler than that. (I hope so.) Throw away
those last few paragraphs.
The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed. We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.
K (2π/ω seconds) = (K+1) (π/ω seconds)
2Kπ/ω = Kπ/ω + π/ω
Subtract Kπ/ω : Kπ/ω = π/ω
Multiply by ω/π : K = 1
(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)
And there we have it:
In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
It will be 2π/ω seconds before the planets line up again.
When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
in the drawing.
To describe it another way . . .
When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...
Bieber has made it halfway around.
Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...
Kanye is doing another complete revolution.
Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...
Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.
You're welcome. The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated. The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
Psychoanalytic dream interpretation is a subdivision of dream interpretation as well as a subdivision of psychoanalysis pioneered by Sigmund Freud in the early twentieth century. Psychoanalytic dream interpretation is the process of explaining the meaning of the way the unconscious thoughts and emotions are processed in the mind during sleep.
There have been multiple methods used in psychoanalytic dream interpretation, including Freud's method of dream interpretation, the symbolic method, and the decoding method. The Freudian method is the most prominently used in psychoanalysis and has been for the last century. Psychoanalytic dream interpretation is used mainly for therapeutic purposes in a variety of settings. Although these theories are used, none have been solidly proven and much has been left open to debate among researchers. Some studies have shown that areas of dream interpretation can be invalid and therefore a decline in importance has been seen in psychoanalytic dream interpretation.
Answer:
Use the right-hand rule for magnetic force to determine the charge on the moving particle.
This is a
negative
charge
Explanation:
