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2472288282 I just filled my tushywith water
Answer:
Expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.
Step-by-step explanation:
If we write a term in the the form of y = cos(π/2)
Then the value of y will be = cos (180/2) = cos(90) = 0
Now we know the value of y is = 0
And if we will find the sin value of y then
sin y = sin (0) = 0
⇒ Then
Therefore we can say that the expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.